KINNITATUD
Lennuameti peadirektori
03.07.2017
käskkirjaga nr 1.1-1/17/144
965/2012 Annex III - PART-ORO Lisa 2
OPERATOR: ____________________________________________________
AOC # ________________________________________________________________
Ind.No. ________________________________________________________________
This compliance list has been checked (date): ____________________________________________________
This compliance list has been checked (name): ____________________________________________________
This compliance list is a tool not replacing the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules. The user must read and
check the items in accordance with the Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules. In case any error or deficiency is found in this list, it should
be notified to the Authority to make the required corrections. All suggestions or corrections to this compliance list will be considered for improving and
developing the list, and to make it more usable for the Operator and the Authority.
CONTENTS of Operation Manuals
The content of OM should be in accordance with AMC 3 ORO.MLR.100, where applicable, as relevant for the area and type of operation. If there are
sections that, because of the nature of the operation, do not apply, it is recommended that operators maintain the numbering system described in
ORO.MLR.101 and AMC3 ORO.MLR.100 and insert ‘Not applicable’ or ‘Intentionally blank’ where appropriate. [AMC and GM to Annex III Part ORO:
GM1 ORO.MLR.100].
As for OM-A and OM-B, main titles must be in accordance with AMC3 ORO.MLR.100. For example: OM-A 12: Rules of the air.
The correlation between Rule References and the Operations Manuals shall be entered in the column OM/Document Reference.
If the required information is not included in the OM but in other document (for example requirements set down in 965/2012 Subpart D: Instruments, Data,
Equipment) put reference to the relevant document column OM/Document Reference.
If a Rule References paragraph is not applicable to the Operator, N/A should be marked to column STATUS by the operator.
The column STATUS is for the Authority to note when the applicable part of OM is in accordance with the requirements.(OK/NO)
The column COMMENTS is for user notes and declarations if needed.
Compliance checklist includes requirements for both commercial air transport operations with aeroplanes and helicopters.
All applicable paragraphs in this compliance list should have either an OM reference or N/A, if not applicable.
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Registrikood 70000800
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Approval
Rule References Requirement OM/Document Reference Comments STATUS
required
965/2012 ---
ANNEX III ---
ORGANISATION REQUIREMENTS FOR ---
AIR OPERATIONS
---
[PART-ORO] ---
---
ORO.GEN.005 Scope This Annex establishes requirements to be ---
followed by an air operator conducting:
(a) commercial air transport operations (CAT); ---
(b) commercial specialised operations;
(c) non-commercial operations with complex
motor-powered aircraft;
(d) non-commercial specialised operations with
complex motor-powered aircraft.
SUBPART GEN ---
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ---
SECTION I ---
General ---
ORO.GEN.105 Competent authority For the purpose of this Annex, the competent ---
authority exercising oversight over operators
- GM1 ORO.GEN.105 subject to a certification obligation shall be for
operators having their principal place of
business in a Member State, the authority
designated by that Member State.
ORO.GEN.110 Operator responsibilities (a) The operator is responsible for the operation
- GM1 ORO.GEN.110(a) of the aircraft in accordance with Annex IV to
- GM1 ORO.GEN.110(c) Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, the relevant
- GM1 ORO.GEN.110(e) requirements of this Annex and its certificate.
- GM2 ORO.GEN.110(e)
- GM1 ORO.GEN.110(f)
(b) Every flight shall be conducted in
accordance with the provisions of the operations
manual.
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required
(c) The operator shall establish and maintain a
system for exercising operational control over
any flight operated under the terms of its
certificate.
(d) The operator shall ensure that its aircraft are
equipped and its crews are qualified as required
for the area and type of operation.
(e) The operator shall ensure that all personnel
assigned to, or directly involved in, ground and
flight operations are properly instructed, have
demonstrated their abilities in their particular
duties and are aware of their responsibilities and
the relationship of such duties to the operation
as a whole.
(f) The operator shall establish procedures and
instructions for the safe operation of each
aircraft type, containing ground staff and crew
member duties and responsibilities for all types
of operation on the ground and in flight. These
procedures shall not require crew members to
perform any activities during critical phases of
flight other than those required for the safe
operation of the aircraft.
(g) The operator shall ensure that all personnel
are made aware that they shall comply with the
laws, regulations and procedures of those States
in which operations are conducted and that are
pertinent to the performance of their duties.
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required
(h) The operator shall establish a checklist
system for each aircraft type to be used by crew
members in all phases of flight under normal,
abnormal and emergency conditions to ensure
that the operating procedures in the operations
manual are followed. The design and utilisation
of checklists shall observe human factors
principles and take into account the latest
relevant documentation from the aircraft
manufacturer.
(i) The operator shall specify flight planning
procedures to provide for the safe conduct of the
flight based on considerations of aircraft
performance, other operating limitations and
relevant expected conditions on the route to be
followed and at the aerodromes or operating
sites concerned. These procedures shall be
included in the operations manual.
(j) The operator shall establish and maintain YES
dangerous goods training programmes for
personnel as required by the technical
instructions. Such training programmes shall be
commensurate with the responsibilities of
personnel. Training programmes of operators
performing CAT, whether they transport
dangerous goods or not, and of operators
conducting operations other than CAT referred
to in points (b), (c) and (d) of point
ORO.GEN.005 that transport dangerous goods
shall be subject to review and approval by the
competent authority.
(k) Notwithstanding point (j), operators
conducting commercial operations with the
following aircraft shall ensure that the flight
crew has received an appropriate dangerous
goods training or briefing, to enable them to
recognise undeclared dangerous goods brought
on-board by passengers or as cargo:
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required
(1) a sailplane;
(2) a balloon;
(3) a single-engined propeller-driven aeroplane
having a maximum certified take-off mass of 5
700 kg or less and a MOPSC of 5 or less
operated in a flight taking off and landing at the
same aerodrome or operating site, under VFR
by day; or
(ii) an other-than complex motor-powered
helicopter, single-engined, with a MOPSC of 5
or less operated in a flight taking off and
landing at the same aerodrome or operating site,
under VFR by day.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.110(a) Operator
responsibilities
SECURITY TRAINING PROGRAMME FOR
CREW MEMBERS — CAT OPERATIONS
Without prejudice to Regulation (EC) No
300/2008, the CAT operator should establish
and maintain a security training programme for
crew members, including theoretical and
practical elements. This training should be
provided at the time of operator conversion
training and thereafter at intervals not
exceeding three years. The content and
duration of the training should be adapted to
the security threats of the individual operator
and should ensure that crew members act in the
most appropriate manner to minimise the
consequences of acts of unlawful interference.
This programme should include the following
elements:
(a) determination of the seriousness of the
occurrence;
(b) crew communication and coordination;
(c) appropriate self-defence responses;
(d) use of non-lethal protective devices
assigned to crew members whose use is
authorised by the Member State;
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required
(e) understanding of behaviour of terrorists so
as to facilitate the ability of crew members to
cope with hijacker behaviour and passenger
responses;
(f) in case where cabin crew are required, live
situational training exercises regarding various
threat conditions;
(g) flight crew compartment procedures to
protect the aircraft;
(h) aircraft search procedures, in accordance
with Regulation (EC) No 300/2008, including
identification of prohibited articles; and
(i) guidance on the least risk bomb locations.
AMC2 ORO.GEN.110(a) Operator
responsibilities
SECURITY TRAINING PROGRAMME FOR
GROUND PERSONNEL — CAT
OPERATIONS
In accordance with Regulation (EC) No
300/2008, the CAT operator should establish
and maintain a security training programme for
ground personnel to acquaint appropriate
employees with preventive measures and
techniques in relation to passengers, baggage,
cargo, mail, equipment, stores and supplies
intended for carriage so that they contribute to
the prevention of acts of sabotage or other
forms of unlawful interference.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.110(c) Operator ---
responsibilities
OPERATIONAL CONTROL ---
The organisation and methods established to
exercise operational control should be included
in the operations manual and should cover at
least a description of responsibilities
concerning the initiation, continuation and
termination or diversion of each flight.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.110(e)
Operator responsibilities
MEL TRAINING PROGRAMME
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required
(a) The operator should develop a training
programme for ground personell dealing with
the use of the MEL and detail such training in
the continuing airworthiness maintenance
exposition CAME and OM as appropriate.
Such training programme should include:
(1) the scope, extent and use of the MEL;
(2) placarding of inoperative equipment;
(3) deferral procedures;
(4) dispatching; and
(5) any other operator’s MEL related
procedures.
(b) The operator should develop a training
programme for crew members and detail such
training in the Operations Manual. Such
training programme should include:
(1) the scope, extent and use of the MEL;
(2) the operator’s MEL procedures;
(3) elementary maintenance procedures in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EC)
No 2042/2003; and
(4) pilot-in-command/commander
responsibilities.
AMC2 ORO.GEN.110(e) Operator
responsibilities
GROUND OPERATIONS WITH
PASSENGERS ON BOARD IN THE
ABSENCE OF FLIGHT CREW
For ground operations, whenever passengers
are embarking, on board or disembarking in the
absence of flight crew members, the operator
should:
(a) establish procedures to alert the aerodrome
services in the event of ground emergency or
urgent need; and
(b) ensure that at least one person on board the
aircraft is qualified to apply these procedures
and ensure proper coordination between the
aircraft and the aerodrome services.
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required
AMC1 ORO.GEN.110(f) Operator
responsibilities
STERILE FLIGHT CREW COMPARTMENT
(a) Sterile flight crew compartment procedures
should ensure that:
(1) flight crew activities are restricted to
essential operational activities; and
(2) cabin crew and technical crew
communications to flight crew or entry into the
flight crew compartment are restricted to safety
or security matters.
(b) The sterile flight crew compartment
procedures should be applied:
(1) during critical phases of flight;
(2) during taxiing (aeroplanes);
(3) below 10 000 feet above the aerodrome of
departure after take-off and the aerodrome of
destination before landing, except for cruise
flight; and
(4) during any other phases of flight as
determined by the pilot-in-command or
commander.
(c) All crew members should be trained on
sterile flight crew compartment procedures
established by the operator, as appropriate to
their duties.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.110(f)(h) Operator ---
responsibilities
ESTABLISHMENT OF PROCEDURES ---
(a) An operator should establish procedures to ---
be followed by cabin crew covering at least:
(1) arming and disarming of slides;
(2) operation of cabin lights, including
emergency lighting;
(3) prevention and detection of cabin, oven and
toilet fires;
(4) actions to be taken when turbulence is
encountered; and
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required
(5) actions to be taken in the event of an
emergency and/or an evacuation.
(b) When establishing procedures and a
checklist system for cabin crew with respect to
the aircraft cabin, the operator should take into
account at least the following duties: (*See
corresponding table)
(c) The operator should specify the contents of
safety briefings for all cabin crew members
prior to the commencement of a flight or series
of flights.
ORO.GEN.115 Application for an AOC
(a) The application for an air operator
certificate or an amendment to an existing
certificate shall be made in a form and manner
established by the competent authority, taking
into account the applicable requirements of
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
Implementing Rules.
(b) Applicants for an initial certificate shall
provide the competent authority with
documentation demonstrating how they will
comply with the requirements established in
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
Implementing Rules. Such documentation shall
include a procedure describing how changes
not requiring prior approval will be managed
and notified to the competent authority.
ORO.GEN.120 Means of compliance (a) Alternative means of compliance to those
adopted by the Agency may be used by an
operator to establish compliance with
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
Implementing Rules.
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Approval
Rule References Requirement OM/Document Reference Comments STATUS
required
(b) When an operator subject to certification
wishes to use an alternative means of
compliance to the acceptable means of
compliance (AMC) adopted by the Agency to
establish compliance with Regulation (EC) No
216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, it shall,
prior to implementing it, provide the competent
authority with a full description of the
alternative means of compliance. The
description shall include any revisions to
manuals or procedures that may be relevant, as
well as an assessment demonstrating that the
Implementing Rules are met.
The operator may implement these alternative YES
means of compliance subject to prior approval
by the competent authority and upon receipt of
the notification as prescribed in
ARO.GEN.120(d).
(c) An operator required to declare its activity
shall notify to the competent authority the list
of alternative means of compliance it uses to
establish compliance with Regulation (EC) No
216/2008 and its Implementing Rules.
(d) When an operator subject to SPO
authorisation wishes to use alternative means
of compliance, it shall comply with (b)
whenever such alternative means of
compliance affects the standard operating
procedures that are part of the authorisation
and with (c) for the declared part of its
organisation and operation.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.120(a) Means of ---
compliance
DEMONSTRATION OF COMPLIANCE ---
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Approval
Rule References Requirement OM/Document Reference Comments STATUS
required
In order to demonstrate that the Implementing
Rules are met, a risk assessment should be
completed and documented. The result of this
risk assessment should demonstrate that an
equivalent level of safety to that established by
the Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC)
adopted by the Agency is reached.
ORO.GEN.125 Terms of approval and A certified operator shall comply with the
privileges of an operator scope and privileges defined in the operations
specifications attached to the operator’s
certificate.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.125 Terms of approval ---
and privileges of an AOC holder
MANAGEMENT SYSTEM ---
DOCUMENTATION
The management system documentation should
contain the privileges and detailed scope of
activities for which the operator is certified, as
relevant to the applicable requirements. The
scope of activities defined in the management
system documentation should be consistent
with the terms of approval.
ORO.GEN.130 Changes (a) Any change affecting: ---
- GM1 ORO.GEN.130(a)
- GM2 ORO.GEN.130(a)
- GM1 ORO.GEN.130(b)
(1) the scope of the certificate or the operations
specifications of an operator; or
(2) any of the elements of the operator’s
management system as required in
ORO.GEN.200(a)(1) and (a)(2),
shall require prior approval by the competent YES
authority.
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Approval
Rule References Requirement OM/Document Reference Comments STATUS
required
(b) For any changes requiring prior approval in ---
accordance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008
and its Implementing Rules, the operator shall
apply for and obtain an approval issued by the
competent authority. The application shall be
submitted before any such change takes place,
in order to enable the competent authority to
determine continued compliance with
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
Implementing Rules and to amend, if
necessary, the operator certificate and related
terms of approval attached to it.
The operator shall provide the competent
authority with any relevant documentation.
The change shall only be implemented upon
receipt of formal approval by the competent
authority in accordance with ARO.GEN.330.
The operator shall operate under the conditions
prescribed by the competent authority during
such changes, as applicable.
(c) All changes not requiring prior approval
shall be managed and notified to the competent
authority as defined in the procedure approved
by the competent authority in accordance with
ARO.GEN.310(c).
AMC1 ORO.GEN.130 Changes related to ---
an AOC holder
APPLICATION TIME FRAMES ---
(a) The application for the amendment of an
airoperator certificate should be submitted at
least 30 days before the date of the intended
changes.
(b) In the case of a planned change of a
nominated person, the operator should inform
the competent authority at least 10 days before
the date of the proposed change.
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required
(c) Unforeseen changes should be notified at
the earliest opportunity, in order to enable the
competent authority to determine continued
compliance with the applicable requirements
and to amend, if necessary, the air operator
certificate and related terms of approval.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.130(b) Changes related to
an AOC holder
MANAGEMENT OF CHANGES
REQUIRING PRIOR APPROVAL
For changes requiring prior approval, the
operators should conduct a safety risk
assessment and provide it to the competent
authority upon request.
ORO.GEN.135 Continued validity (a) The operator’s certificate shall remain valid ---
subject to:
(1) the operator remaining in compliance with
the relevant requirements of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules,
taking into account the provisions related to the
handling of findings as specified under
ORO.GEN.150;
(2) the competent authority being granted
access to the operator as defined in
ORO.GEN.140 to determine continued
compliance with the relevant requirements of
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
Implementing Rules; and
(3) the certificate not being surrendered or
revoked.
(b) Upon revocation or surrender the certificate
shall be returned to the competent authority
without delay.
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Approval
Rule References Requirement OM/Document Reference Comments STATUS
required
ORO.GEN.140 Access (a) For the purpose of determining compliance ---
with the relevant requirements of Regulation
(EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules,
the operator shall grant access at any time to
any facility, aircraft, document, records, data,
procedures or any other material relevant to its
activity subject to certification, whether it is
contracted or not, to any person authorised by
one of the following authorities:
(1) the competent authority defined in
ORO.GEN.105;
(2) the authority acting under the provisions of
ARO.GEN.300(d), ARO.GEN.300(e) or
ARO.RAMP.
(b) Access to the aircraft mentioned under (a)
shall include the possibility to enter and remain
in the aircraft during flight operations unless
otherwise decided by the commander for the
flight crew compartment in accordance with
CAT.GEN.MPA.135 in the interest of safety.
ORO.GEN.150 Findings After receipt of notification of findings, the ---
operator shall:
- GM1 ORO.GEN.150
(a) identify the root cause of the non-
compliance;
(b) define a corrective action plan; and
(c) demonstrate corrective action
implementation to the satisfaction of the
competent authority within a period agreed
with that authority as defined in
ARO.GEN.350(d).
AMC1 ORO.GEN.150(b) Findings ---
GENERAL ---
The corrective action plan defined by the
operator should address the effects of the non-
compliance, as well as its root-cause.
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required
ORO.GEN.155 Immediate reaction to a The operator shall implement: ---
safety problem
(a) any safety measures mandated by the
competent authority in accordance with
ARO.GEN.135(c); and
(b) any relevant mandatory safety information
issued by the Agency, including airworthiness
directives.
ORO.GEN.160 Occurrence reporting (a) The operator shall report to the competent
authority, and to any other organisation
required by the State of the operator to be
informed, any accident, serious incident and
occurrence as defined in Regulation (EU) No
996/2010 of the European Parliament and of
the Council and Directive 2003/42/EC.
(b) Without prejudice to point (a) the operator
shall report to the competent authority and to
the organisation responsible for the design of
the aircraft any incident, malfunction, technical
defect, exceeding of technical limitations or
occurrence that would highlight inaccurate,
incomplete or ambiguous information
contained in the operational suitability data
established in accordance with Regulation
(EU) No 748/2012 or other irregular
circumstance that has or may have endangered
the safe operation of the aircraft and that has
not resulted in an accident or serious incident.
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required
(c) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No
996/2010, Directive 2003/42/EC, Commission
Regulation (EC) No 1321/2007 and
Commission Regulation (EC) No 1330/2007,
the reports referred in paragraphs (a) and (b)
shall be made in a form and manner established
by the competent authority and contain all
pertinent information about the condition
known to the operator.
(d) Reports shall be made as soon as
practicable, but in any case within 72 hours of
the operator identifying the condition to which
the report relates, unless exceptional
circumstances prevent this.
(e) Where relevant, the operator shall produce
a follow-up report to provide details of actions
it intends to take to prevent similar occurrences
in the future, as soon as these actions have
been identified. This report shall be produced
in a form and manner established by the
competent authority.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.160 Occurrence ---
reporting
GENERAL ---
(a) The operator should report all occurrences
defined in AMC 20-8, and as required by the
applicable national rules implementing
Directive 2003/42/EC on occurrence reporting
in civil aviation.
(b) In addition to the reports required by AMC
20-8 and Directive 2003/42/EC, the operator
should report volcanic ash clouds encountered
during flight.
AMC2 ORO.GEN.160 Occurrence
reporting
REPORTABLE EVENTS OF PBN
OPERATIONS
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required
(a) A reportable event should be an event that
adversely affects the safety of the operation
and may be caused by actions or events
external to the functioning of the aircraft
navigation system.
(b) Technical defects and the exceedance of
technical limitations, including:
(1) significant navigation errors attributed to
incorrect data or a database coding error;
(2) unexpected deviations in lateral/vertical
flight path not caused by flight crew input or
erroneous operation of equipment;
(3) significant misleading information without
a failure warning;
(4) total loss or multiple navigation equipment
failure; and
(5) loss of integrity, e.g. RAIM function,
whereas integrity was predicted to be available
during preflight planning,
should be considered a reportable event.
(c) The operator should have in place a system
for investigating a reportable event to
determine if it is due to an improperly coded
procedure or a navigation database error. The
operator should initiate corrective actions for
such an event.
SECTION 2 ---
Management ---
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required
ORO.GEN.200 Management system (a) The operator shall establish, implement and ---
maintain a management system that includes:
- GM1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(1)
- GM2 ORO.GEN.200(a)(1)
- GM3 ORO.GEN.200(a)(1)
- GM1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(2)
- GM1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(3)
- GM2 ORO.GEN.200(a)(3)
- GM3 ORO.GEN.200(a)(3)
- GM4 ORO.GEN.200(a)(3)
- GM1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(4)
- GM1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(5)
- GM1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(6)
- GM2 ORO.GEN.200(a)(6)
- GM3 ORO.GEN.200(a)(6)
- GM4 ORO.GEN.200(a)(6)
(1) clearly defined lines of responsibility and
accountability throughout the operator,
including a direct safety accountability of the
accountable manager;
(2) a description of the overall philosophies
and principles of the operator with regard to
safety, referred to as the safety policy;
(3) the identification of aviation safety hazards
entailed by the activities of the operator, their
evaluation and the management of associated
risks, including taking actions to mitigate the
risk and verify their effectiveness;
(4) maintaining personnel trained and
competent to perform their tasks;
(5) documentation of all management system
key processes, including a process for making
personnel aware of their responsibilities and
the procedure for amending this
documentation;
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Approval
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(6) a function to monitor compliance of the
operator with the relevant requirements.
Compliance monitoring shall include a
feedback system of findings to the accountable
manager to ensure effective implementation of
corrective actions as necessary; and
(7) any additional requirements that are
prescribed in the relevant Subparts of this
Annex or other applicable Annexes.
(b) The management system shall correspond
to the size of the operator and the nature and
complexity of its activities, taking into account
the hazards and associated risks inherent in
these activities.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(1);(2);(3);(5) ---
Management system
NON-COMPLEX OPERATORS - GENERAL ---
(a) Safety risk management may be performed
using hazard checklists or similar risk
management tools or processes, which are
integrated into the activities of the operator.
(b) The operator should manage safety risks
related to a change. The management of
change should be a documented process to
identify external and internal change that may
have an adverse effect on safety. It should
make use of the operator’s existing hazard
identification, risk assessment and mitigation
processes.
(c) The operator should identify a person who
fulfils the role of safety manager and who is
responsible for coordinating the safety
management system. This person may be the
accountable manager or a person with an
operational role within the operator.
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(d) Within the operator, responsibilities should
be identified for hazard identification, risk
assessment and mitigation.
(e) The safety policy should include a
commitment to improve towards the highest
safety standards, comply with all applicable
legal requirements, meet all applicable
standards, consider best practices and provide
appropriate resources.
(f) The operator should, in cooperation with
other stakeholders, develop, coordinate and
maintain an emergency response plan (ERP)
that ensures orderly and safe transition from
normal to emergency operations and return to
normal operations. The ERP should provide the
actions to be taken by the operator or specified
individuals in an emergency and reflect the
size, nature and complexity of the activities
performed by the operator.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(1) Management ---
system
COMPLEX OPERATORS - ---
ORGANISATION AND
ACCOUNTABILITIES
The management system of an operator should ---
encompass safety by including a safety
manager and a safety review board in the
organisational structure.
(a) Safety manager ---
(1) The safety manager should act as the focal
point and be responsible for the development,
administration and maintenance of an effective
safety management system.
(2) The functions of the safety manager should ---
be to:
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(i) facilitate hazard identification, risk analysis
and management;
(ii) monitor the implementation of actions
taken to mitigate risks, as listed in the safety
action plan;
(iii) provide periodic reports on safety
performance;
(iv) ensure maintenance of safety management
documentation;
(v) ensure that there is safety management
training available and that it meets acceptable
standards;
(vi) provide advice on safety matters; and
(vii) ensure initiation and follow-up of internal
occurrence / accident investigations.
(b) Safety review board ---
(1) The Safety review board should be a high
level committee that considers matters of
strategic safety in support of the accountable
manager’s safety accountability.
(2) The board should be chaired by the
accountable manager and be composed of
heads of functional areas.
(3) The safety review board should monitor: ---
(i) safety performance against the safety policy
and objectives;
(ii) that any safety action is taken in a timely
manner; and
(iii) the effectiveness of the operator’s safety
management processes.
(c) The safety review board should ensure that
appropriate resources are allocated to achieve
the established safety performance.
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(d) The safety manager or any other relevant
person may attend, as appropriate, safety
review board meetings. He/she may
communicate to the accountable manager all
information, as necessary, to allow decision
making based on safety data.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(2) Management ---
system
COMPLEX OPERATORS - SAFETY ---
POLICY
(a) The safety policy should: ---
(1) be endorsed by the accountable manager;
(2) reflect organisational commitments
regarding safety and its proactive and
systematic management;
(3) be communicated, with visible
endorsement, throughout the operator; and
(4) include safety reporting principles.
(b) The safety policy should include a ---
commitment:
(1) to improve towards the highest safety
standards;
(2) to comply with all applicable legislation,
meet all applicable standards and consider best
practices;
(3) to provide appropriate resources;
(4) to enforce safety as one primary
responsibility of all managers; and
(5) not to blame someone for reporting
something which would not have been
otherwise detected.
(c) Senior management should: ---
(1) continually promote the safety policy to all
personnel and demonstrate their commitment
to it;
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(2) provide necessary human and financial
resources for its implementation; and
(3) establish safety objectives and performance
standards.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(3) Management ---
system
COMPLEX OPERATORS - SAFETY RISK ---
MANAGEMENT
(a) Hazard identification processes ---
(1) Reactive and proactive schemes for hazard
identification should be the formal means of
collecting, recording, analysing, acting on and
generating feedback about hazards and the
associated risks that affect the safety of the
operational activities of the operator.
(2) All reporting systems, including
confidential reporting schemes, should include
an effective feedback process.
(b) Risk assessment and mitigation processes ---
(1) A formal risk management process should
be developed and maintained that ensures
analysis (in terms of likelihood and severity of
occurrence), assessment (in terms of
tolerability) and control (in terms of
mitigation) of risks to an acceptable level.
(2) The levels of management who have the
authority to make decisions regarding the
tolerability of safety risks, in accordance with
(b)(1), should be specified.
(c) Internal safety investigation ---
(1) The scope of internal safety investigations
should extend beyond the scope of occurrences
required to be reported to the competent
authority.
(d) Safety performance monitoring and ---
measurement
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(1) Safety performance monitoring and
measurement should be the process by which
the safety performance of the operator is
verified in comparison to the safety policy and
objectives.
(2) This process should include: ---
(i) safety reporting, addressing also the status
of compliance with the applicable
requirements;
(ii) safety studies, that is, rather large analyses
encompassing broad safety concerns;
(iii) safety reviews including trends reviews,
which would be conducted during introduction
and deployment of new technologies, change
or implementation of procedures, or in
situations of structural change in operations;
(iv) safety audits focussing on the integrity of
the operator’s management system, and
periodically assessing the status of safety risk
controls; and
(v) safety surveys, examining particular
elements or procedures of a specific operation,
such as problem areas or bottlenecks in daily
operations, perceptions and opinions of
operational personnel and areas of dissent or
confusion.
(e) The management of change ---
The operator should manage safety risks
related to a change. The management of
change should be a documented process to
identify external and internal change that may
have an adverse effect on safety. It should
make use of the operator’s existing hazard
identification, risk assessment and mitigation
processes.
(f) Continuous improvement ---
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The operator should continuously seek to ---
improve its safety performance. Continuous
improvement should be achieved through:
(1) proactive and reactive evaluations of
facilities, equipment, documentation and
procedures through safety audits and surveys;
(2) proactive evaluation of individuals’
performance to verify the fulfilment of their
safety responsibilities; and
(3) reactive evaluations in order to verify the
effectiveness of the system for control and
mitigation of risk.
(g) The emergency response plan (ERP) ---
(1) An ERP should be established that provides
the actions to be taken by the operator or
specified individuals in an emergency. The
ERP should reflect the size, nature and
complexity of the activities performed by the
operator.
(2) The ERP should ensure: ---
(i) an orderly and safe transition from normal
to emergency operations;
(ii) safe continuation of operations or return to
normal operations as soon as practicable; and
(iii) coordination with the emergency response
plans of other organisations, where appropriate.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(4) Management ---
system
TRAINING AND COMMUNICATION ON ---
SAFETY
(a) Training ---
(1) All personnel should receive safety training
as appropriate for their safety responsibilities.
(2) Adequate records of all safety training
provided should be kept.
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(b) Communication ---
(1) The operator should establish ---
communication about safety matters that:
(i) ensures that all personnel are aware of the
safety management activities as appropriate for
their safety responsibilities;
(ii) conveys safety critical information,
especially relating to assessed risks and
analysed hazards;
(iii) explains why particular actions are taken;
and
(iv) explains why safety procedures are
introduced or changed.
(2) Regular meetings with personnel where
information, actions and procedures are
discussed may be used to communicate safety
matters.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(5) Management ---
system
MANAGEMENT SYSTEM ---
DOCUMENTATION - GENERAL
(a) The operator’s management system ---
documentation should at least include the
following information:
(1) a statement signed by the accountable
manager to confirm that the operator will
continuously work in accordance with the
applicable requirements and the operator’s
documentation as required by this Annex;
(2) the operator's scope of activities;
(3) the titles and names of persons referred to
in ORO.GEN.210 (a) and (b);
(4) an operator chart showing the lines of
responsibility between the persons referred to
in ORO.GEN.210;
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(5) a general description and location of the
facilities referred to in ORO.GEN.215;
(6) procedures specifying how the operator
ensures compliance with the applicable
requirements;
(7) the amendment procedure for the operator’s
management system documentation.
(b) The operator’s management system
documentation may be included in a separate
manual or in (one of) the manual(s) as required
by the applicable Subpart(s). A cross reference
should be included.
AMC2 ORO.GEN.200(a)(5) Management ---
system
COMPLEX OPERATORS – SAFETY ---
MANAGEMENT MANUAL
(a) The safety management manual (SMM)
should be the key instrument for
communicating the approach to safety for the
whole of the operator. The SMM should
document all aspects of safety management,
including the safety policy, objectives,
procedures and individual safety
responsibilities.
(b) The contents of the safety management ---
manual should include all of the following:
(1) scope of the safety management system;
(2) safety policy and objectives;
(3) safety accountability of the accountable
manager;
(4) safety responsibilities of key safety
personnel;
(5) documentation control procedures;
(6) hazard identification and risk management
schemes;
(7) safety action planning;
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(8) safety performance monitoring;
(9) incident investigation and reporting;
(10) emergency response planning;
(11) management of change (including
organisational changes with regard to safety
responsibilities);
(12) safety promotion.
(c) The SMM may be contained in (one of) the
manual(s) of the operator.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.200(a)(6) Management ---
system
COMPLIANCE MONITORING - GENERAL ---
(a) Compliance monitoring ---
The implementation and use of a compliance ---
monitoring function should enable the operator
to monitor compliance with the relevant
requirements of this Annex and other
applicable Annexes.
(1) The operator should specify the basic
structure of the compliance monitoring
function applicable to the activities conducted.
(2) The compliance monitoring function should
be structured according to the size of the
operator and the complexity of the activities to
be monitored.
(b) Organisations should monitor compliance ---
with the procedures they have designed to
ensure safe activities. In doing so, they should
as a minimum, and where appropriate, monitor
compliance with:
(1) privileges of the operator;
(2) manuals, logs, and records;
(3) training standards;
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(4) management system procedures and
manuals.
(c) Organisational set up ---
(1) To ensure that the operator continues to
meet the requirements of this Part and other
applicable Parts, the accountable manager
should designate a compliance monitoring
manager. The role of the compliance
monitoring manager is to ensure that the
activities of the operator are monitored for
compliance with the applicable regulatory
requirements, and any additional requirements
as established by the operator, and that these
activities are being carried out properly under
the supervision of the relevant head of
functional area.
(2) The compliance monitoring manager
should be responsible for ensuring that the
compliance monitoring programme is properly
implemented, maintained and continually
reviewed and improved.
(3) The compliance monitoring manager ---
should:
(i) have direct access to the accountable
manager;
(ii) not be one of the other persons referred to
in ORO.GEN.210 (b);
(iii) be able to demonstrate relevant
knowledge, background and appropriate
experience related to the activities of the
operator, including knowledge and experience
in compliance monitoring; and
(iv) have access to all parts of the operator, and
as necessary, any contracted operator.
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(4) In the case of a non-complex operator, this
task may be exercised by the accountable
manager provided he/she has demonstrated
having the related competence as defined in
(c)(3)(iii).
(5) In the case the same person acts as
compliance monitoring manager and as safety
manager, the accountable manager, with
regards to his/her direct accountability for
safety, should ensure that sufficient resources
are allocated to both functions, taking into
account the size of the operator and the nature
and complexity of its activities.
(6) The independence of the compliance
monitoring function should be established by
ensuring that audits and inspections are carried
out by personnel not responsible for the
function, procedure or products being audited.
(d) Compliance monitoring documentation ---
(1) Relevant documentation should include the
relevant part(s) of the operator’s management
system documentation.
(2) In addition, relevant documentation should ---
also include the following:
(i) terminology;
(ii) specified activity standards;
(iii) a description of the operator;
(iv) the allocation of duties and
responsibilities;
(v) procedures to ensure regulatory
compliance;
(vi) the compliance monitoring programme, ---
reflecting:
(A) schedule of the monitoring programme;
(B) audit procedures;
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(C) reporting procedures;
(D) follow-up and corrective action
procedures; and
(E) recording system.
(vii) the training syllabus referred to in (e)(2);
(viii) document control.
(e) Training ---
(1) Correct and thorough training is essential to
optimise compliance in every operator. In order
to achieve significant outcomes of such
training, the operator should ensure that all
personnel understand the objectives as laid
down in the operator’s management system
documentation.
(2) Those responsible for managing the
compliance monitoring function should receive
training on this task. Such training should
cover the requirements of compliance
monitoring, manuals and procedures related to
the task, audit techniques, reporting and
recording.
(3) Time should be provided to train all
personnel involved in compliance management
and for briefing the remainder of the personnel.
(4) The allocation of time and resources should
be governed by the volume and complexity of
the activities concerned.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.200(b) Management ---
system
SIZE, NATURE AND COMPLEXITY OF ---
THE ACTIVITY
(a) An operator should be considered as
complex when it has a workforce of more than
20 full time equivalents (FTEs) involved in the
activity subject to Regulation (EC) No
216/2008 and its Implementing Rules.
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(b) Operators with up to 20 FTEs involved in ---
the activity subject to Regulation (EC) No
216/2008 and its Implementing Rules may also
be considered complex based on an assessment
of the following factors:
(1) in terms of complexity, the extent and
scope of contracted activities subject to the
approval;
(2) in terms of risk criteria, the extent of the ---
following:
(i) operations requiring a specific approval;
(ii) high-risk commercial specialised
operations;
(iii) operations with different types of aircraft
used; and
(iv) operations in challenging environment
(offshore, mountainous area, etc.).
ORO.GEN.205 Contracted activities (a) The operator shall ensure that when
contracting or purchasing any part of its
- GM1 ORO.GEN.205 activity, the contracted or purchased service or
- GM2 ORO.GEN.205 product conforms to the applicable
requirements.
(b) When the certified operator or the SPO
authorisation holder contracts any part of its
activity to an organisation that is not itself
certified or authorised in accordance with this
Part to carry out such activity, the contracted
organisation shall work under the approval of
the operator. The contracting organisation shall
ensure that the competent authority is given
access to the contracted organisation, to
determine continued compliance with the
applicable requirements.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.205 Contracted activities ---
RESPONSIBILITY WHEN CONTRACTING ---
ACTIVITIES.
(a) The operator may decide to contract certain
activities to external organisations.
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(b) A written agreement should exist between
the operator and the contracted organisation
clearly defining the contracted activities and
the applicable requirements.
(c) The contracted safety related activities
relevant to the agreement should be included in
the operator's safety management and
compliance monitoring programmes.
(d) The operator should ensure that the
contracted organisation has the necessary
authorisation or approval when required, and
commands the resources and competence to
undertake the task.
ORO.GEN.210 Personnel requirements (a) The operator shall appoint an accountable
manager, who has the authority for ensuring
- GM1 ORO.GEN.210(a) that all activities can be financed and carried
out in accordance with the applicable
requirements. The accountable manager shall
be responsible for establishing and maintaining
an effective management system.
(b) A person or group of persons shall be
nominated by the operator, with the
responsibility of ensuring that the operator
remains in compliance with the applicable
requirements. Such person(s) shall be
ultimately responsible to the accountable
manager.
(c) The operator shall have sufficient qualified
personnel for the planned tasks and activities to
be performed in accordance with the applicable
requirements.
(d) The operator shall maintain appropriate
experience, qualification and training records
to show compliance with point (c).
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(e) The operator shall ensure that all personnel
are aware of the rules and procedures relevant
to the exercise of their duties.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.210(a) Application for an
air operator certificate
INFORMATION ON THE ACCOUNTABLE As part of being granted an air operator
MANAGER certificate (AOC), the operator should provide
the competent authority with the following
detailed information regarding the accountable
manager:
(a) name of the accountable manager;
(b) position within the organisation;
(c) information on means to ensure that all
activities can be financed and carried out;
(d) qualification relevant to the position; and
(e) work experience relevant to the position.
ORO.GEN.215 Facility requirements The operator shall have facilities allowing the
performance and management of all planned
tasks and activities in accordance with the
applicable requirements.
ORO.GEN.220 Record-keeping (a) The operator shall establish a system of
record-keeping that allows adequate storage
- GM1 ORO.GEN.220(b) and reliable traceability of all activities
developed, covering in particular all the
elements indicated in ORO.GEN.200.
(b) The format of the records shall be specified
in the operator’s procedures.
(c) Records shall be stored in a manner that
ensures protection from damage, alteration and
theft.
AMC1 ORO.GEN.220(b) Record-keeping ---
GENERAL ---
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(a) The record-keeping system should ensure
that all records are accessible whenever needed
within a reasonable time. These records should
be organised in a way that ensures traceability
and retrievability throughout the required
retention period.
(b) Records should be kept in paper form or in
electronic format or a combination of both.
Records stored on microfilm or optical disc
format are also acceptable. The records should
remain legible throughout the required
retention period. The retention period starts
when the record has been created or last
amended.
(c) Paper systems should use robust material
which can withstand normal handling and
filing. Computer systems should have at least
one backup system which should be updated
within 24 hours of any new entry. Computer
systems should include safeguards against the
ability of unauthorised personnel to alter the
data.
(d) All computer hardware used to ensure data
backup should be stored in a different location
from that containing the working data and in an
environment that ensures they remain in good
condition. When hardware or software changes
take place, special care should be taken that all
necessary data continues to be accessible at
least through the full period specified in the
relevant Subpart. In the absence of such
indication, all records should be kept for a
minimum period of 5 years.
---
SUBPART AOC ---
AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATION ---
ORO.AOC.100 Application for an air operator
certificate
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- GM1 ORO.AOC.100(c) (a) Without prejudice to Regulation (EC) No
1008/2008 of the European Parliament and the
Council8 , prior to commencing commercial air
transport operations, the operator shall apply
for and obtain an air operator certificate (AOC)
issued by the competent authority.
(b) The operator shall provide the following
information to the competent authority:
(1) the official name and business name,
address, and mailing address of the applicant;
(2) a description of the proposed operation,
including the type(s), and number of aircraft to
be operated;
(3) a description of the management system,
including organisational structure;
(4) the name of the accountable manager;
(5) the names of the nominated persons
required by ORO.AOC.135(a) together with
their qualifications and experience;
(6) a copy of the operations manual required by
ORO.MLR.100;
(7) a statement that all the documentation sent
to the competent authority have been verified
by the applicant and found in compliance with
the applicable requirements.
(c) Applicants shall demonstrate to the
competent authority that:
(1) they comply with all the requirements of
annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, this
Annex (Part-ORO), Annex IV (Part-CAT) and
Annex V (Part-SPA) to this Regulation and
Annex I (Part 26) to Regulation (EU)
2015/6409 ;
(2) all aircraft operated have a certificate of
airworthiness (CofA) in accordance with
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 or are dry-
leased in accordance with ORO.AOC.110(d);
and
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(3) its organisation and management are
suitable and properly matched to the scale and
scope of the operation.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.100 Application for an
AOC
APPLICATION TIME FRAMES
The application for the initial issue of an AOC
should be submitted at least 90 days before the
intended start date of operation. The operations
manual may be submitted later, but in any case
not later than 60 days before the intended start
date of operation.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.100(a) Application for an
air operator certificate
OPERATOR SECURITY PROGRAMME
In accordance with Regulation (EC) No
300/2008, as part of granting the AOC, the
CAT operator should provide the competent
authority with the operator’s security
programme, including security training. The
security programme should be adapted to the
type and area of operation, as well as to the
aircraft operated.
ORO.AOC.105 Operations specifications The privileges of the operator, including those
and privileges of an AOC holder granted in accordance with Annex V (Part-
SPA), shall be specified in the operations
specifications of the certificate.
ORO.AOC.110 Leasing agreement Any lease-in ---
- GM1 ORO.AOC.110(c)
(a) Without prejudice to Regulation (EC) No YES
1008/2008, any lease agreement concerning
aircraft used by an operator certified in
accordance with this Part shall be subject to
prior approval by the competent authority.
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(b) The operator certified in accordance with
this Part shall only wet lease-in aircraft from an
operator that is not subject to an operating ban
pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 2111/2005.
Wet lease-in ---
(c) The applicant for the approval of the wet ---
lease-in of an aircraft of a third country
operator shall demonstrate to the competent
authority that:
(1) the third country operator holds a valid
AOC issued in accordance with ICAO Annex
6;
(2) the safety standards of the third country
operator with regard to continuing
airworthiness and air operations are equivalent
to the applicable requirements established by
Regulation (EC) No 2042/2003 and this
Regulation; and
(3) the aircraft has a standard CofA issued in
accordance with ICAO Annex 8.
Dry lease-in ---
(d) An applicant for the approval of the dry ---
lease-in of an aircraft registered in a third
country shall demonstrate to the competent
authority that:
(1) an operational need has been identified that
cannot be satisfied through leasing an aircraft
registered in the EU;
(2) the duration of the dry lease-in does not
exceed seven months in any 12 consecutive
month period; and
(3) compliance with the applicable
requirements of Regulation (EC) No
2042/2003 is ensured.
(4) the aircraft is equipped in accordance with
the EU regulations for Air Operations.
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Dry lease-out ---
(e) The operator certified in accordance with YES
this Part intending to dry lease-out one of its
aircraft shall apply for prior approval by the
competent authority. The application shall be
accompanied by copies of the intended lease
agreement or description of the lease
provisions, except financial arrangements, and
all other relevant documentation.
Wet lease-out ---
(f) Prior to the wet lease-out of an aircraft, the
operator certified in accordance with this Part
shall notify the competent authority.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.110 Leasing agreement ---
GENERAL ---
The operator intending to lease-in an aircraft ---
should provide the competent authority with
the following information:
(a) the aircraft type, registration markings and
serial number;
(b) the name and address of the registered
owner;
(c) a copy of the valid certificate of
airworthiness;
(d) a copy of the lease agreement or description
of the lease provisions, except financial
arrangements;
(e) duration of the lease; and
(f) in case of wet lease-in a copy of the AOC of
the third country operator and the areas of
operation.
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The information mentioned above should be ---
accompanied by a statement signed by the
lessee that the parties to the lease agreement
fully understand their respective
responsibilities under the applicable
regulations.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.110(c) Leasing ---
agreement
WET LEASE-IN ---
If the operator is not intending to apply EU ---
safety requirements for air operations and
continuing airworthiness when wet leasing-in
an aircraft registered in a third country, it
should demonstrate to the competent authority
that the standards complied with are equivalent
to the following requirements:
(a) Annex IV (Part-CAT);
(b) Part-ORO: ---
(1) ORO.GEN.110 and Section 2 of Subpart
GEN;
(2) ORO.MLR, excluding ORO.MLR.105;
(3) ORO.FC;
(4) ORO.CC, excluding ORO.CC.200 and
ORO.CC.210(a);
(5) ORO.TC;
(6) ORO.FTL, including related CS-FTL; and
(7) ORO.SEC;
(c) Annex V (Part-SPA), if applicable;
(d) for continuing airworthiness management
of the third country operator, Part-M Subpart-
B, Subpart-C and Subpart-G, excluding
M.A.707, and M.A.710;
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(e) for the maintenance organisation used by
the third country operator during the lease
period: Part-145; and
(f) the operator should provide the competent
authority with a full description of the flight
time limitation scheme(s), operating
procedures and safety assessment
demonstrating compliance with the safety
objectives set out in points (b) (1)-(6).
AMC2 ORO.AOC.110(c) Leasing ---
agreement
WET LEASE-IN ---
The lessee should maintain a record of
occasions when lessors are used, for inspection
by the State that issued its AOC.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.110(f) Leasing agreement ---
WET LEASE-OUT ---
When notifying the competent authority. the ---
operator intending to wet lease-out an aircraft
should provide the competent authority with
the following information:
(a) the aircraft type, registration markings and
serial number;
(b) the name and address of the lessee;
(c) a copy of the lease agreement or description
of the lease provisions, except financial
arrangements; and
(d) the duration of the lease agreement.
ORO.AOC.115 Code-share agreements (a) Without prejudice to applicable EU safety ---
requirements for third country operators and
aircraft, an operator certified in accordance
with this Part shall enter into a code-share
agreement with a third country operator only
after:
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(1) having verified that the third country
operator complies with the applicable ICAO
standards; and
(2) having provided the competent authority
with documented information enabling such
authority to comply with ARO.OPS.105.
(b) When implementing the code-share
agreement the operator shall monitor and
regularly assess the ongoing compliance of the
third country operator with the applicable
ICAO standards.
(c) The operator certified in accordance with
this Part shall not sell and issue tickets for a
flight operated by a third country operator
when the third country operator is subject to an
operating ban pursuant to Regulation (EC) No
2111/2005 or is failing to maintain compliance
with the applicable ICAO standards.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.115(a)(1) Code share ---
agreements
INITIAL VERIFICATION OF ---
COMPLIANCE
(a) In order to verify the third country
operator’s compliance with the applicable
ICAO standards, in particular ICAO annexes 1,
2, 6, Part I and III, as applicable, 8 and 18, the
EU operator should conduct an audit of the
third country operator, including interviews of
personnel and inspections carried out at the
third country operator’s facilities.
(b) The audit should focus on the operational,
management and control systems of the
operator.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.115(b) Code share ---
arrangements
CODE-SHARE AUDIT PROGRAMME ---
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(a) Operators should establish a code-share ---
audit programme for monitoring continuous
compliance of the third country operator with
the applicable ICAO standards. Such code-
share audit programme should include:
(1) the audit methodology (audit report +
compliance statements);
(2) details of the specific operational areas to
audit;
(3) criteria for defining satisfactory audit
results;
(4) a system for reporting and correcting
findings;
(5) A continuous monitoring system;
(6) auditor qualification and authorisation; and
(7) the frequency of audits.
(b) The third country code-share operator
should be audited at periods not exceeding 24
months. The beginning of the first 24-month
oversight planning cycle is determined by the
date of the first audit and should then
determine the start and end dates of the
recurrent 24-month planning cycle. The
interval between two audits should not exceed
24 months.
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(c) The EU operator should ensure a renewal
audit of each third country code-share operator
prior to the audit expiry date of the previous
audit. The audit expiry date for the previous
audit becomes the audit effective date for the
renewal audit provided the closing meeting for
the renewal audit is within 150 days prior to
the audit expiry date for the previous audit. If
the closing meeting for the renewal audit is
more than 150 days prior to the audit expiry
date from the previous audit, then the audit
effective date for the renewal audit is the day
of the closing meeting of the renewal audit.
Renewal audits are valid for 24 consecutive
months beginning with the audit effective date
and ending with the audit expiry date.
(d) A code-share audit could be shared by
several operators. In case of a shared audit the
report should be made available for review by
all duly identified sharing operators by any
means.
(e) After closure of all findings identified
during the audit, the EU operator should
submit an audit compliance statement to the
competent authority demonstrating that the
third country operator meets all the applicable
safety standards.
AMC2 ORO.AOC.115(b) Code share ---
agreements
THIRD PARTY PROVIDERS ---
(a) The initial audit and/or the continuous ---
monitoring may be performed by a third party
provider on behalf of the EU operator when it
is demonstrated that:
(1) a documented arrangement has been
established with the third party provider;
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(2) the audit standards applied by the third
party provider addresses the scope of the
regulation in sufficient detail;
(3) the third party provider uses an evaluation
system, designed to assess the operational,
management and control systems of the third
country code-share operator;
(4) independence of the third party provider, its
evaluation system as well as the impartiality of
the auditors is ensured;
(5) the auditors are appropriately qualified and
have sufficient knowledge, experience and
training, including on-the-job training, to
perform their allocated tasks;
(6) audits are performed on-site;
(7) access to the relevant data and facilities is
granted to the level of detail necessary to verify
compliance with the applicable requirements;
(8) access to the full audit report is granted to
the EU operator;
(9) procedures have been established for
monitoring continued compliance of the third
country code-share operator with the applicable
requirements, taking into account the timelines
in AMC1 ORO.AOC.115(b)(b) and (c);
(10) procedures have been established to notify
the third country code-share operator of any
non-compliance with the applicable
requirements, the corrective actions to be
taken, the follow up of these corrective actions
and closure of findings;
(b) The use of a third party provider for the
initial audit or the monitoring of continuous
compliance of the third country code-share
operator does not exempt the EU operator from
its responsibility under ORO.AOC.115.
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(c) The EU operator should maintain a list of
the third country code-share operators
monitored by the third party provider. This list
and the full audit report prepared by the third
party provider should be made available to the
competent authority upon request.
ORO.AOC.120 Approvals to provide cabin (a) When intending to provide the training YES ---
crew training and to issue cabin crew course required in Annex V (Part-CC) to
attestations Regulation (EU) No 290/2012, the operator
shall apply for and obtain an approval issued
by the competent authority. For this purpose,
the applicant shall demonstrate compliance
with the requirements for the conduct and
content of training course established in
CC.TRA.215 and CC.TRA.220 of that Annex
and shall provide the competent authority with:
(1) the date of intended commencement of
activity;
(2) the personal details and qualifications of the
instructors as relevant to the training elements
to be covered;
(3) the name(s) and address(es) of the training
site(s) at which the training is to be conducted;
(4) a description of the facilities, training
methods, manuals and representative devices to
be used; and
(5) the syllabi and associated programmes for
the training course.
(b) If a Member State decides, in accordance YES ---
with ARA.CC.200 of Annex VI (Part-ARA) to
Regulation (EU) No 290/2012, that operators
may be approved to issue cabin crew
attestations, the applicant shall, in addition to
(a):
(1) demonstrate to the competent authority ---
that:
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(i) the organisation has the capability and
accountability to perform this task;
(ii) the personnel conducting examinations are
appropriately qualified and free from conflict
of interest; and
(2) provide the procedures and the specified ---
conditions for:
(i) conducting the examination required by
CC.TRA.220;
(ii) issuing cabin crew attestations; and
(iii) supplying the competent authority with all
relevant information and documentation related
to the attestations it will issue and their holders,
for the purpose of record-keeping, oversight
and enforcement actions by that authority.
(c) The approvals referred to in (a) and (b) ---
shall be specified in the operations
specifications.
ORO.AOC.125 Non-commercial operations (a) The holder of an AOC may conduct non- ---
of aircraft listed in the operations commercial operations with an aircraft
specifications by the holder of an AOC otherwise used for commercial air transport
operations that is listed in the operations
specifications of its AOC, provided that the
operator:
(1) describes such operations in detail in the ---
operations manual, including:
(i) identification of the applicable
requirements;
(ii) a clear identification of any differences
between operating procedures used when
conducting commercial air transport and non-
commercial operations;
(iii) a means of ensuring that all personnel
involved in the operation are fully familiar with
the associated procedures;
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(2) submits the identified differences between YES
the operating procedures referred to in
(a)(1)(ii) to the competent authority for prior
approval.
(b) An AOC holder conducting operations
referred to in (a) shall not be required to submit
a declaration in accordance with this Part.
ORO.AOC.130 Flight data monitoring — (a) The operator shall establish and maintain a
aeroplanes flight data monitoring system, which shall be
integrated in its management system, for
- GM1 ORO.AOC.130 aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-
- GM2 ORO.AOC.130 off mass of more than 27 000 kg.
(*See also Appendix 1 to AMC1
ORO.AOC.130 Flight data monitoring -
aeroplanes)
(b) The flight data monitoring system shall be
non-punitive and contain adequate safeguards
to protect the source(s) of the data.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.130 Flight data ---
monitoring - aeroplanes
FLIGHT DATA MONITORING (FDM) ---
PROGRAMME
(a) The safety manager, as defined under
AMC1-ORO.GEN.200(a)(1), should be
responsible for the identification and
assessment of issues and their transmission to
the manager(s) responsible for the process(es)
concerned. The latter should be responsible for
taking appropriate and practicable safety action
within a reasonable period of time that reflects
the severity of the issue.
(b) An FDM programme should allow an ---
operator to:
(1) identify areas of operational risk and
quantify current safety margins;
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(2) identify and quantify operational risks by
highlighting occurrences of non-standard,
unusual or unsafe circumstances;
(3) use the FDM information on the frequency
of such occurrences, combined with an
estimation of the level of severity, to assess the
safety risks and to determine which may
become unacceptable if the discovered trend
continues;
(4) put in place appropriate procedures for
remedial action once an unacceptable risk,
either actually present or predicted by trending,
has been identified; and
(5) confirm the effectiveness of any remedial
action by continued monitoring.
(c) FDM analysis techniques should comprise ---
the following:
(1) Exceedance detection: searching for
deviations from aircraft flight manual limits
and standard operating procedures. A set of
core events should be selected to cover the
main areas of interest to the operator. A sample
list is provided in Appendix 1 to AMC1
ORO.AOC.130. The event detection limits
should be continuously reviewed to reflect the
operator’s current operating procedures.
(2) All flights measurement: a system defining
what is normal practice. This may be
accomplished by retaining various snapshots of
information from each flight.
(3) Statistics - a series of data collected to
support the analysis process: this technique
should include the number of flights flown per
aircraft and sector details sufficient to generate
rate and trend information.
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(d) FDM analysis, assessment and process
control tools: the effective assessment of
information obtained from digital flight data
should be dependent on the provision of
appropriate information technology tool sets.
(e) Education and publication: sharing safety
information should be a fundamental principle
of aviation safety in helping to reduce accident
rates. The operator should pass on the lessons
learnt to all relevant personnel and, where
appropriate, industry.
(f) Accident and incident data requirements
specified in CAT.GEN.MPA.195 take
precedence over the requirements of an FDM
programme. In these cases the FDR data
should be retained as part of the investigation
data and may fall outside the de-identification
agreements.
(g) Every crew member should be responsible
to report events. Significant risk-bearing
incidents detected by FDM should therefore
normally be the subject of mandatory
occurrence reporting by the crew. If this is not
the case then they should submit a
retrospective report that should be included
under the normal process for reporting and
analysing hazards, incidents and accidents.
(h) The data recovery strategy should ensure a
sufficiently representative capture of flight
information to maintain an overview of
operations. Data analysis should be performed
sufficiently frequently to enable action to be
taken on significant safety issues.
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(i) The data retention strategy should aim to
provide the greatest safety benefits practicable
from the available data. A full dataset should
be retained until the action and review
processes are complete; thereafter, a reduced
dataset relating to closed issues should be
maintained for longer-term trend analysis.
Programme managers may wish to retain
samples of de-identified full-flight data for
various safety purposes (detailed analysis,
training, benchmarking etc.).
(j) The data access and security policy should
restrict information access to authorised
persons. When data access is required for
airworthiness and maintenance purposes, a
procedure should be in place to prevent
disclosure of crew identity.
(k) The procedure to prevent disclosure of crew ---
identity should be written in a document,
which should be signed by all parties (airline
management, flight crew member
representatives nominated either by the union
or the flight crew themselves). This procedure
should, as a minimum, define:
(1) the aim of the FDM programme;
(2) a data access and security policy that
should restrict access to information to
specifically authorised persons identified by
their position;
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(3) the method to obtain de-identified crew
feedback on those occasions that require
specific flight follow-up for contextual
information; where such crew contact is
required the authorised person(s) need not
necessarily be the programme manager or
safety manager, but could be a third party
(broker) mutually acceptable to unions or staff
and management;
(4) the data retention policy and accountability
including the measures taken to ensure the
security of the data;
(5) the conditions under which advisory
briefing or remedial training should take place;
this should always be carried out in a
constructive and non-punitive manner;
(6) the conditions under which the
confidentiality may be withdrawn for reasons
of gross negligence or significant continuing
safety concern;
(7) the participation of flight crew member
representative(s) in the assessment of the data,
the action and review process and the
consideration of recommendations; and
(8) the policy for publishing the findings
resulting from FDM.
(l) Airborne systems and equipment used to
obtain FDM data should range from an already
installed full quick access recorder (QAR), in a
modern aircraft with digital systems, to a basic
crash-protected recorder in an older or less
sophisticated aircraft. The analysis potential of
the reduced data set available in the latter case
may reduce the safety benefits obtainable. The
operator should ensure that FDM use does not
adversely affect the serviceability of equipment
required for accident investigation.
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ORO.AOC.135 Personnel requirements (a) In accordance with ORO.GEN.210(b), the ---
operator shall nominate persons responsible for
- GM1 ORO.AOC.135(a) the management and supervision of the
- GM2 ORO.AOC.135(a) following areas:
(1) flight operations;
(2) crew training;
(3) ground operations; and
(4) continuing airworthiness in accordance
with Regulation (EC) No 2042/2003.
(b) Adequacy and competency of personnel ---
(1) The operator shall employ sufficient
personnel for the planned ground and flight
operations.
(2) All personnel assigned to, or directly ---
involved in, ground and flight operations shall:
(i) be properly trained;
(ii) demonstrate their capabilities in the
performance of their assigned duties; and
(iii) be aware of their responsibilities and the
relationship of their duties to the operation as a
whole.
(c) Supervision of personnel ---
(1) The operator shall appoint a sufficient
number of personnel supervisors, taking into
account the structure of the operator’s
organisation and the number of personnel
employed.
(2) The duties and responsibilities of these
supervisors shall be defined, and any other
necessary arrangements shall be made to
ensure that they can discharge their supervisory
responsibilities.
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(3) The supervision of crew members and
personnel involved in the operation shall be
exercised by individuals with adequate
experience and the skills to ensure the
attainment of the standards specified in the
operations manual.
AMC1 ORO.AOC.135(a) Personnel ---
requirements
NOMINATED PERSONS ---
(a) The person may hold more than one of the
nominated posts if such an arrangement is
considered suitable and properly matched to
the scale and scope of the operation.
(b) A description of the functions and the
responsibilities of the nominated persons,
including their names, should be contained in
the operations manual.
(c) The holder of an AOC should make
arrangements to ensure continuity of
supervision in the absence of nominated
persons.
(d) The person nominated by the holder of an
AOC should not be nominated by another
holder of an AOC, unless agreed with the
competent authorities concerned.
(e) Persons nominated should be contracted to
work sufficient hours to fulfil the management
functions associated with the scale and scope
of the operation.
AMC2 ORO.AOC.135(a) Personnel ---
requirements
COMBINATION OF NOMINATED ---
PERSONS RESPONSIBILITIES
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(a) The acceptability of a single person holding
several posts, possibly in combination with
being the accountable manager, should depend
upon the nature and scale of the operation. The
two main areas of concern should be
competence and an individual’s capacity to
meet his/her responsibilities.
(b) As regards competence in different areas of
responsibility, there should not be any
difference from the requirements applicable to
persons holding only one post.
(c) The capacity of an individual to meet
his/her responsibilities should primarily be
dependent upon the scale of the operation.
However the complexity of the organisation or
of the operation may prevent, or limit,
combinations of posts which may be
acceptable in other circumstances.
(d) In most circumstances, the responsibilities
of a nominated person should rest with a single
individual. However, in the area of ground
operations, it may be acceptable for
responsibilities to be split, provided that the
responsibilities of each individual concerned
are clearly defined.
ORO.AOC.140 Facility requirements In accordance with ORO.GEN.215, the ---
- GM1 ORO.AOC.140(b);(c) operator shall:
(a) make use of appropriate ground handling
facilities to ensure the safe handling of its
flights;
(b) arrange operational support facilities at the
main operating base, appropriate for the area
and type of operation; and
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(c) ensure that the available working space at
each operating base is sufficient for personnel
whose actions may affect the safety of flight
operations. Consideration shall be given to the
needs of ground crew, personnel concerned
with operational control, the storage and
display of essential records and flight planning
by crews.
ORO.AOC.150 Documentation (a) The operator shall make arrangements for
requirements the production of manuals and any other
documentation required and associated
amendments.
(b) The operator shall be capable of
distributing operational instructions and other
information without delay.
---
SUBPART MLR ---
MANUALS, LOGS AND RECORDS ---
ORO.MLR.100 Operations manual — (a) The operator shall establish an operations
general manual (OM) as specified under 8.b of Annex
IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.
- GM1 ORO.MLR.100(k)
(b) The content of the OM shall reflect the
requirements set out in this Annex, Annex IV
(Part-CAT) and Annex V (Part-SPA), as
applicable, and shall not contravene the
conditions contained in the operations
specifications to the air operator certificate
(AOC).
(c) The OM may be issued in separate parts.
(d) All operations personnel shall have easy
access to the portions of the OM that are
relevant to their duties.
(e) The OM shall be kept up to date. All
personnel shall be made aware of the changes
that are relevant to their duties.
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(f) Each crew member shall be provided with a
personal copy of the relevant sections of the
OM pertaining to their duties. Each holder of
an OM, or appropriate parts of it, shall be
responsible for keeping their copy up to date
with the amendments or revisions supplied by
the operator.
(g) For AOC holders: ---
(1) for amendments required to be notified in
accordance with ORO.GEN.115(b) and
ORO.GEN.130(c), the operator shall supply
the competent authority with intended
amendments in advance of the effective date;
and
(2) for amendments to procedures associated
with prior approval items in accordance with
ORO.GEN.130, approval shall be obtained
before the amendment becomes effective.
(g1) For SPO authorisation holders, any
amendment associated with the authorised
standard operating procedures, prior approval
shall be obtained before the amendment
becomes effective
(h) Notwithstanding (g) and (g1), when
immediate amendments or revisions are
required in the interest of safety, they may be
published and applied immediately, provided
that any approval required has been applied
for.
(i) The operator shall incorporate all
amendments and revisions required by the
competent authority.
(j) The operator shall ensure that information
taken from approved documents, and any
amendment thereof, is correctly reflected in the
OM. This does not prevent the operator from
publishing more conservative data and
procedures in the OM.
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(k) The operator shall ensure that all personnel
are able to understand the language in which
those parts of the OM which pertain to their
duties and responsibilities are written. The
content of the OM shall be presented in a form
that can be used without difficulty and
observes human factors principles.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.100 Operations manual - ---
general
GENERAL ---
(a) The operations manual (OM) may vary in ---
detail according to the complexity of the
operation and of the type and number of
aircraft operated.
(b) The OM or parts thereof may be presented ---
in any form, including electronic form. In all
cases, the accessibility, usability and reliability
should be assured.
(c) The OM should be such that: ---
(1) all parts of the manual are consistent and
compatible in form and content;
(2) the manual can be readily amended; and
(3) the content and amendment status of the
manual is controlled and clearly indicated.
(d) The OM should include a description of its ---
amendment and revision process specifying:
(1) the person(s) who may approve
amendments or revisions;
(2) the conditions for temporary revisions
and/or immediate amendments or revision
required in the interest of safety; and
(3) the methods by which operator personnel
are advised of the changes.
(e) The OM content may be based on, or may
refer to, industry codes of practice.
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(f) When compiling an OM, the operator may
take advantage of the contents of other relevant
documents. Material produced by the operator
for the type-related part of the OM may be
supplemented with, or substituted by,
applicable parts of the aircraft flight manual
(AFM) or, where such a document exists, by an
aircraft operating manual produced by the
manufacturer of the aircraft.
(g) In the case of commercial operations with
other-than-complex motor-powered
aircraft or non-commercial operations, a ‘pilot
operating handbook’ (POH), or equivalent
document, may be used as the type-related part
of the OM, provided that the POH covers the
normal and abnormal/emergency operating
procedures.
(h) For the route and aerodrome part of the
OM, material produced by the operator may be
supplemented with or substituted by applicable
route guide material produced by a specialist
company.
(i) If the operator chooses to use material from
another source in the OM, either the applicable
material should be copied and included directly
in the relevant part of the OM, or the OM
should contain a reference to the appropriate
section of that applicable material.
(j) If the operator chooses to make use of
material from another source (e.g. a route
manual producer, an aircraft manufacturer or a
training organisation) this does not absolve the
operator from the responsibility of verifying
the applicability and suitability of this material.
Any material received from an external source
should be given its status by a statement in the
OM.
AMC2 ORO.MLR.100 Operations manual – ---
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General
CONTENTS – NON-COMMERCIAL ---
OPERATIONS WITH COMPLEX MOTOR-
POWERED AIRCRAFT
For non-commercial operations with complex ---
motor-powered aircraft, or CAT operations
with either single-engined propeller-driven
aeroplanes with an MOPSC of 5 or less, or
single-engined non-complex helicopters with
an MOPSC of 5 or less, taking off and landing
at the same aerodrome or operating site, under
VFR by day, the OM should contain at least
the following information, where applicable:
(a) Table of contents;
(b) Amendment control status and list of
effective pages or paragraphs, unless the entire
manual is re-issued and the manual has an
effective date on it;
(c) Duties, responsibilities and succession of
management and operating personnel;
(d) Description of the management system;
(e) Operational control system;
(f) Flight time limitations;
(g) Standard operating procedures (SOPs);
(h) Weather limitations;
(i) Emergency procedures;
(j) Accidents/incidents considerations;
(k) Security procedures;
(l) Minimum equipment list (MEL);
(m) Personnel qualifications and training;
(n) Record-keeping;
(o) Normal flight operations;
(p) Performance operating limitations;
(q) Procedures for the preservation of
recordings of the flight recorders in order to
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prevent inadvertent reactivation, repair or
reinstallation of the flight recorders following
an accident or a serious incident or when this
preservation is directed by the investigating
authority;
(r) Handling of dangerous goods.
AMC3 ORO.MLR.100 Operations manual – ---
general
CONTENTS – CAT OPERATIONS ---
(a) The OM should contain at least the
following information, where applicable, as
relevant for the area and type of operation:
A GENERAL/BASIC
0 ADMINISTRATION AND CONTROL OF
OPERATIONS MANUAL
0.1 Introduction:
(a) A statement that the manual complies with
all applicable regulations and with the terms
and conditions of the applicable AOC.
(b) A statement that the manual contains
operational instructions that are to be complied
with by the relevant personnel.
(c) A list and brief description of the various
parts, their contents, applicability and use.
(d) Explanations and definitions of terms and
words needed for the use of the manual.
0.2 System of amendment and revision:
(a) Details of the person(s) responsible for the
issuance and insertion of amendments and
revisions.
(b) A record of amendments and revisions with
insertion dates and effective dates.
(c) A statement that handwritten amendments
and revisions are not permitted, except in
situations requiring immediate amendment or
revision in the interest of safety.
(d) A description of the system for the
annotation of pages or paragraphs and their
effective dates.
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(e) A list of effective pages or paragraphs.
(f) Annotation of changes (in the text and, as
far as practicable, on charts and diagrams).
(g) Temporary revisions.
(h) A description of the distribution system for
the manuals, amendments and revisions.
1 ORGANISATION AND
RESPONSIBILITIES
1.1 Organisational structure. A description of
the organisational structure, including the
general organogram and operations
departments’ organograms. The organogram
should depict the relationship between the
operations departments and the other
departments of the operator. In particular, the
subordination and reporting lines of all
divisions, departments, etc., which pertain to
the safety of flight operations, should be
shown.
1.2 Nominated persons. The name of each
nominated person responsible for flight
operations, crew training and ground
operations, as prescribed in ORO.AOC.135. A
description of their function and
responsibilities should be included.
1.3 Responsibilities and duties of operations
management personnel. A description of the
duties, responsibilities and authority of
operations management personnel pertaining to
the safety of flight operations and the
compliance with the applicable regulations.
1.4 Authority, duties and responsibilities of the
pilot-in-command/commander. A statement
defining the authority, duties and
responsibilities of the pilot-
incommand/commander.
1.5 Duties and responsibilities of crew
members other than the pilot-
incommand/commander.
2 OPERATIONAL CONTROL AND
SUPERVISION
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2.1 Supervision of the operation by the
operator. A description of the system for
supervision of the operation by the operator
(see ORO.GEN.110(c)). This should show how
the safety of flight operations and the
qualifications of personnel are supervised. In
particular, the procedures related to the
following items should be described:
(a) licence and qualification validity,
(b) competence of operations personnel,
(c) control, analysis and storage of the required
records.
2.2 System and responsibility for promulgation
of additional operational instructions and
information. A description of any system for
promulgating information which may be of an
operational nature, but which is supplementary
to that in the OM. The applicability of this
information and the responsibilities for its
promulgation should be included.
2.3 Operational control. A description of the
procedures and responsibilities necessary to
exercise operational control with respect to
flight safety.
2.4 Powers of the authority. A description of
the powers of the competent authority and
guidance to staff on how to facilitate
inspections by authority personnel.
3 MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
A description of the management system,
including at least the following:
(a) safety policy;
(b) the process for identifying safety hazards
and for evaluating and managing the associated
risks;
(c) compliance monitoring system;
(d) allocation of duties and responsibilities;
(e) documentation of all key management
system processes.
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4 CREW COMPOSITION
4.1 Crew composition. An explanation of the
method for determining crew compositions,
taking account of the following:
(a) the type of aircraft being used;
(b) the area and type of operation being
undertaken;
(c) the phase of the flight;
(d) the minimum crew requirement and flight
duty period planned;
(e) experience (total and on type), recency and
qualification of the crew members;
(f) the designation of the pilot-in-
command/commander and, if necessitated by
the duration of the flight, the procedures for the
relief of the pilot-incommand/commander or
other members of the flight crew (see
ORO.FC.105);
(g) the designation of the senior cabin crew
member and, if necessitated by the duration of
the flight, the procedures for the relief of the
senior cabin crew member and any other
member of the cabin crew.
4.2 Designation of the pilot-in-
command/commander. The rules applicable to
the designation of the pilot-in-
command/commander.
4.3 Flight crew incapacitation. Instructions on
the succession of command in the event of
flight crew incapacitation.
4.4 Operation on more than one type. A
statement indicating which aircraft are
considered as one type for the purpose of:
(a) flight crew scheduling; and
(b) cabin crew scheduling.
5 QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
5.1 A description of the required licence,
rating(s), qualification/competency (e.g. for
routes and aerodromes), experience, training,
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checking and recency for operations personnel
to conduct their duties. Consideration should
be given to the aircraft type, kind of operation
and composition of the crew.
5.2 Flight crew:
(a) pilot-in-command/commander,
(b) pilot relieving the pilot-in-
command/commander,
(c) co-pilot,
(d) pilot relieving the co-pilot,
(e) pilot under supervision,
(f) system panel operator,
(g) operation on more than one type or variant.
5.3 Cabin crew:
(a) senior cabin crew member,
(b) cabin crew member:
(i) required cabin crew member
(ii) additional cabin crew member and cabin
crew member during familiarisation flights,
(c) operation on more than one type or variant.
5.4 Training, checking and supervision
personnel:
(a) for flight crew; and
(b) for cabin crew.
5.5 Other operations personnel (including
technical crew and crew members other than
flight, cabin and technical crew).
6 CREW HEALTH PRECAUTIONS
6.1 Crew health precautions. The relevant
regulations and guidance to crew members
concerning health, including the following:
(a) alcohol and other intoxicating liquids,
(b) narcotics,
(c) drugs,
(d) sleeping tablets,
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(e) anti-depressants,
(f) pharmaceutical preparations,
(g) immunisation,
(h) deep-sea diving,
(i) blood/bone marrow donation,
(j) meal precautions prior to and during flight,
(k) sleep and rest,
(l) surgical operations.
7 FLIGHT TIME LIMITATIONS
7.1 Flight and duty time limitations and rest
requirements.
7.2 Exceedance of flight and duty time
limitations and/or reductions of rest periods.
Conditions under which flight and duty time
may be exceeded or rest periods may be
reduced, and the procedures used to report
these modifications.
7.3 A description of the fatigue risk
management, including at least the following:
(a) the philosophy and principles;
(b) documentation of processes;
(c) scientific principles and knowledge;
(d) hazard identification and risk assessment
processes;
(e) risk mitigation process;
(f) FRM safety assurance processes; and
(g) FRM promotion processes.
8 OPERATING PROCEDURES
8.1 Flight preparation instructions. As
applicable to the operation:
8.1.1 Minimum flight altitudes. A description
of the method of determination and application
of minimum altitudes including:
(a) a procedure to establish the minimum
altitudes/flight levels for visual flight rules
(VFR) flights; and
(b) a procedure to establish the minimum
altitudes/flight levels for instrument flight rules
(IFR) flights.
8.1.2 Criteria and responsibilities for
determining the adequacy of aerodromes to be
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used.
8.1.3 Methods and responsibilities for
establishing aerodrome operating minima.
Reference should be made to procedures for
the determination of the visibility and/or
runway visual range (RVR) and for the
applicability of the actual visibility observed
by the pilots, the reported visibility and the
reported RVR.
8.1.4 En-route operating minima for VFR
flights or VFR portions of a flight and, where
single-engined aircraft are used, instructions
for route selection with respect to the
availability of surfaces that permit a safe forced
landing.
8.1.5 Presentation and application of
aerodrome and en-route operating minima.
8.1.6 Interpretation of meteorological
information. Explanatory material on the
decoding of meteorological (MET) forecasts
and MET reports relevant to the area of
operations, including the interpretation of
conditional expressions.
8.1.7 Determination of the quantities of fuel,
oil and water methanol carried. The methods
by which the quantities of fuel, oil and water
methanol to be carried are determined and
monitored in-flight. This section should also
include instructions on the measurement and
distribution of the fluid carried on board. Such
instructions should take account of all
circumstances likely to be encountered on the
flight, including the possibility of in-flight re-
planning and of failure of one or more of the
aircraft’s power plants. The system for
maintaining fuel and oil records should also be
described.
8.1.8 Mass and centre of gravity. The general
principles of mass and centre of gravity
including the following:
(a) definitions;
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(b) methods, procedures and responsibilities
for preparation and acceptance of mass and
centre of gravity calculations;
(c) the policy for using standard and/or actual
masses;
(d) the method for determining the applicable
passenger, baggage and cargo mass;
(e) the applicable passenger and baggage
masses for various types of operations and
aircraft type;
(f) general instructions and information
necessary for verification of the various types
of mass and balance documentation in use;
(g) last-minute changes procedures;
(h) specific gravity of fuel, oil and water
methanol;
(i) seating policy/procedures;
(j) for helicopter operations, standard load
plans.
8.1.9 Air traffic services (ATS) flight plan.
Procedures and responsibilities for the
preparation and submission of the ATS flight
plan. Factors to be considered include the
means of submission for both individual and
repetitive flight plans.
8.1.10Operational flight plan. Procedures and
responsibilities for the preparation and
acceptance of the operational flight plan. The
use of the operational flight plan should be
described, including samples of the operational
flight plan formats in use.
8.1.11Operator’s aircraft technical log. The
responsibilities and the use of the operator’s
aircraft technical log should be described,
including samples of the format used.
8.1.12List of documents, forms and additional
information to be carried
8.1.13For commercial air transport operations
with single-engined turbine aeroplanes in
instrument meteorological conditions or at
night (CAT SETIMC) approved in accordance
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with Subpart L (SET-IMC) of Annex V (Part-
SPA) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012:
(a) the procedure for route selection with
respect to the availability of surfaces, which
permits a safe forced landing;
(b) the instructions for the assessment of
landing sites (elevation, landing direction, and
obstacles in the area); and
(c) the instructions for the assessment of the
weather conditions at those landing sites.
8.2 Ground handling instructions. As
applicable to the operation:
8.2.1 Fuelling procedures. A description of
fuelling procedures, including:
(a) safety precautions during refuelling and
defueling including when an auxiliary power
unit is in operation or when rotors are running
or when an engine is or engines are running
and the prop-brakes are on;
(b) refuelling and defuelling when passengers
are embarking, on board or disembarking; and
(c) precautions to be taken to avoid mixing
fuels.
8.2.2 Aircraft, passengers and cargo handling
procedures related to safety. A description of
the handling procedures to be used when
allocating seats, embarking and disembarking
passengers and when loading and unloading
the aircraft. Further procedures, aimed at
achieving safety whilst the aircraft is on the
ramp, should also be given. Handling
procedures should include:
(a) special categories of passengers, including
children/infants, persons with reduced
mobility, inadmissible passengers, deportees
and persons in custody;
(b) permissible size and weight of hand
baggage;
(c) loading and securing of items in the
aircraft;
(d) positioning of ground equipment;
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(e) operation of aircraft doors;
(f) safety on the aerodrome/operating site,
including fire prevention and safety in blast
and suction areas;
(g) start-up, ramp departure and arrival
procedures, including, for aeroplanes, push-
back and towing operations;
(h) servicing of aircraft;
(i) documents and forms for aircraft handling;
(j) special loads and classification of load
compartments; and
(k) multiple occupancy of aircraft seats.
8.2.3 Procedures for the refusal of
embarkation. Procedures to ensure that persons
who appear to be intoxicated, or who
demonstrate by manner or physical indications
that they are under the influence of drugs, are
refused embarkation. This does not apply to
medical patients under proper care.
8.2.4 De-icing and anti-icing on the ground. A
description of the de-icing and antiicing policy
and procedures for aircraft on the ground.
These should include descriptions of the types
and effects of icing and other contaminants on
aircraft whilst stationary, during ground
movements and during take-off. In addition, a
description of the fluid types used should be
given, including the following:
(a) proprietary or commercial names, (b)
characteristics,
(c) effects on aircraft performance,
(d) hold-over times,
(e) precautions during usage.
8.3 Flight Procedures:
8.3.1 VFR/IFR Policy. A description of the
policy for allowing flights to be made under
VFR, or for requiring flights to be made under
IFR, or for changing from one to the other.
8.3.2 Navigation Procedures. A description of
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all navigation procedures, relevant to the
type(s) and area(s) of operation. Special
consideration should be given to:
(a) standard navigational procedures, including
policy for carrying out independent cross-
checks of keyboard entries where these affect
the flight path to be followed by the aircraft;
and
(b) required navigation performance (RNP),
minimum navigation performance specification
(MNPS) and polar navigation and navigation in
other designated areas;
(c) in-flight re-planning;
(d) procedures in the event of system
degradation; and
(e) reduced vertical separation minima
(RVSM), for aeroplanes
8.3.3 Altimeter setting procedures, including,
where appropriate, use of:
(a) metric altimetry and conversion tables; and
(b) QFE operating procedures.
8.3.4 Altitude alerting system procedures for
aeroplanes or audio voice alerting devices for
helicopters.
8.3.5 Ground proximity warning system
(GPWS)/terrain avoidance warning system
(TAWS), for aeroplanes. Procedures and
instructions required for the avoidance of
controlled flight into terrain, including
limitations on high rate of descent near the
surface (the related training requirements are
covered in OM-D 2.1).
8.3.6 Policy and procedures for the use of
traffic collision avoidance system
(TCAS)/airborne collision avoidance system
(ACAS) for aeroplanes and, when applicable,
for helicopters.
8.3.7 Policy and procedures for in-flight fuel
management.
8.3.8 Adverse and potentially hazardous
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atmospheric conditions. Procedures for
operating in, and/or avoiding, adverse and
potentially hazardous atmospheric conditions,
including the following:
(a) thunderstorms,
(b) icing conditions,
(c) turbulence,
(d) windshear,
(e) jet stream,
(f) volcanic ash clouds,
(g) heavy precipitation,
(h) sand storms,
(i) mountain waves,
(j) significant temperature inversions.
8.3.9 Wake turbulence. Wake turbulence
separation criteria, taking into account aircraft
types, wind conditions and runway/final
approach and take-off area (FATO) location.
For helicopters, consideration should also be
given to rotor downwash.
8.3.10Crew members at their stations. The
requirements for crew members to occupy their
assigned stations or seats during the different
phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary
in the interest of safety and, for aeroplane
operations, including procedures for controlled
rest in the flight crew compartment.
8.3.11Use of restraint devices for crew and
passengers. The requirements for crew
members and passengers to use safety belts
and/or restraint systems during the different
phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary
in the interest of safety.
8.3.12Admission to flight crew compartment.
The conditions for the admission to the flight
crew compartment of persons other than the
flight crew. The policy regarding the admission
of inspectors from an authority should also be
included.
8.3.13Use of vacant crew seats. The conditions
and procedures for the use of vacant crew
seats.
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8.3.14Incapacitation of crew members.
Procedures to be followed in the event of
incapacitation of crew members in-flight.
Examples of the types of incapacitation and the
means for recognising them should be
included.
8.3.15Cabin safety requirements. Procedures:
(a) covering cabin preparation for flight, in-
flight requirements and preparation for landing,
including procedures for securing the cabin and
galleys;
(b) to ensure that passengers are seated where,
in the event that an emergency evacuation is
required, they may best assist and not hinder
evacuation from the aircraft;
(c) to be followed during passenger
embarkation and disembarkation;
(d) when refuelling/defuelling with passengers
embarking, on board or disembarking;
(e) covering the carriage of special categories
of passengers;
(f) covering smoking on board;
(g) covering the handling of suspected
infectious diseases.
8.3.16Passenger briefing procedures. The
contents, means and timing of passenger
briefing in accordance with Annex IV (Part-
CAT).
8.3.17Procedures for aircraft operated
whenever required cosmic or solar radiation
detection equipment is carried.
8.3.18Policy on the use of autopilot and
autothrottle for aircraft fitted with these
systems.
8.4 Low visibility operations (LVO). A
description of the operational procedures
associated with LVO.
8.5 Extended-range operations with two-
engined aeroplanes (ETOPS). A description of
the ETOPS operational procedures. (Refer to
EASA AMC 20-6)
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8.6 Use of the minimum equipment and
configuration deviation list(s).
8.7 Non-revenue flights. Procedures and
limitations, for example, for the following:
(a) non-commercial operations by AOC
holders, a description of the differences to
commercial operations,
(b) training flights,
(c) test flights,
(d) delivery flights,
(e) ferry flights,
(f) demonstration flights,
(g) positioning flights, including the kind of
persons who may be carried on such flights.
8.8 Oxygen requirements:
8.8.1 An explanation of the conditions under
which oxygen should be provided and used.
8.8.2 The oxygen requirements specified for
the following persons:
(a) flight crew;
(b) cabin crew;
(c) passengers.
9 DANGEROUS GOODS AND WEAPONS
9.1 Information, instructions and general
guidance on the transport of dangerous goods,
in accordance with Subpart G of Annex V
(SPA.DG), including:
(a) operator’s policy on the transport of
dangerous goods;
(b) guidance on the requirements for
acceptance, labelling, handling, stowage and
segregation of dangerous goods;
(c) special notification requirements in the
event of an accident or occurrence when
dangerous goods are being carried;
(d) procedures for responding to emergency
situations involving dangerous goods;
(e) duties of all personnel involved; and
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(f) instructions on the carriage of the operator’s
personnel on cargo aircraft when dangerous
goods are being carried.
9.2 The conditions under which weapons,
munitions of war and sporting weapons may be
carried.
10 SECURITY
Security instructions, guidance, procedures,
training and responsibilities, taking into
account Regulation (EC) No 300/200816.
Some parts of the security instructions and
guidance may be kept confidential.
11 HANDLING, NOTIFYING AND
REPORTING ACCIDENTS, INCIDENTS
AND OCCURRENCES AND USING THE
CVR RECORDING
Procedures for handling, notifying and
reporting accidents, incidents and occurrences.
This section should include the following:
(a) definition of accident, incident and
occurrence and of the relevant responsibilities
of all persons involved;
(b) illustrations of forms to be used for
reporting all types of accident, incident and
occurrence (or copies of the forms themselves),
instructions on how they are to be completed,
the addresses to which they should be sent and
the time allowed for this to be done;
(c) in the event of an accident, descriptions of
which departments, authorities and other
organisations have to be notified, how this will
be done and in what sequence;
(d) procedures for verbal notification to air
traffic service units of incidents involving
ACAS resolution advisories (RAs), bird
hazards, dangerous goods and hazardous
conditions;
(e) procedures for submitting written reports on
air traffic incidents, ACAS RAs, bird strikes,
dangerous goods incidents or accidents, and
unlawful interference;
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(f) reporting procedures. These procedures
should include internal safety-related reporting
procedures to be followed by crew members,
designed to ensure that the pilot-in-
command/commander is informed immediately
of any incident that has endangered, or may
have endangered, safety during the flight, and
that the pilotin-command/commander is
provided with all relevant information.
(g) Procedures for the preservation of
recordings of the flight recorders following an
accident or a serious incident or when so
directed by the investigating authority. These
procedures should include:
(1) a full quotation of CAT.GEN.MPA.195(a);
and
(2) instructions and means to prevent
inadvertent reactivation, repair or reinstallation
of the flight recorders by personnel of the
operator or of third parties, and to ensure that
flight recorder recordings are preserved for the
needs of the investigating authority.
(h) Procedures required by
CAT.GEN.MPA.195 for using the CVR
recording or its transcript without prejudice to
Regulation (EU) No 996/210, when applicable.
12 RULES OF THE AIR
(a) Visual and instrument flight rules,
(b) Territorial application of the rules of the air
(c) Communication procedures, including
communication-failure procedures,
(d) Information and instructions relating to the
interception of civil aircraft,
(e) The circumstances in which a radio
listening watch is to be maintained,
(f) Signals
(g) Time system used in operation,
(h) ATC clearances, adherence to flight plan
and position reports,
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(i) Visual signals used to warn an unauthorised
aircraft flying in or about to enter a restricted,
prohibited or danger area,
(j) Procedures for flight crew observing an
accident or receiving a distress transmission,
(k) The ground/air visual codes for use by
survivors, and description and use of signal
aids,
(l) Distress and urgency signals.
13 LEASING/CODE-SHARE
A description of the operational arrangements
for leasing and code-share, associated
procedures and management responsibilities.
B AIRCRAFT OPERATING MATTERS —
TYPE RELATED
Taking account of the differences between
types/classes, and variants of types, under the
following headings:
0 GENERAL INFORMATION AND UNITS
OF MEASUREMENT
0.1 General information (e.g. aircraft
dimensions), including a description of the
units of measurement used for the operation of
the aircraft type concerned and conversion
tables.
1 LIMITATIONS
1.1 A description of the certified limitations
and the applicable operational limitations
should include the following:
(a) certification status (e.g. EASA
(supplemental) type certificate, environmental
certification, etc.);
(b) passenger seating configuration for each
aircraft type, including a pictorial presentation;
(c) types of operation that are approved (e.g.
VFR/IFR, CAT II/III, RNP, flights in known
icing conditions, etc.);
(d) crew composition;
(e) mass and centre of gravity;
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(f) speed limitations;
(g) flight envelope(s);
(h) wind limits, including operations on
contaminated runways;
(i) performance limitations for applicable
configurations;
(j) (runway) slope;
(k) for aeroplanes, limitations on wet or
contaminated runways;
(l) airframe contamination;
(m) system limitations.
2 NORMAL PROCEDURES
The normal procedures and duties assigned to
the crew, the appropriate checklists, the system
for their use and a statement covering the
necessary coordination procedures between
flight and cabin/other crew members. The
normal procedures and duties should include
the following:
(a) pre-flight,
(b) pre-departure,
(c) altimeter setting and checking,
(d) taxi, take-off and climb,
(e) noise abatement,
(f) cruise and descent,
(g) approach, landing preparation and briefing,
(h) VFR approach,
(i) IFR approach,
(j) visual approach and circling
(k) missed approach,
(l) normal landing,
(m) post-landing,
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(n) for aeroplanes, operations on wet and
contaminated runways.
3 ABNORMAL AND/OR EMERGENCY
PROCEDURES
The abnormal and/or emergency procedures
and duties assigned to the crew, the appropriate
checklists, the system for their use and a
statement covering the necessary coordination
procedures between flight and cabin/other crew
members. The abnormal and/or emergency
procedures and duties should include the
following:
(a) crew incapacitation,
(b) fire and smoke drills,
(c) for aeroplanes, un-pressurised and partially
pressurised flight,
(d) for aeroplanes, exceeding structural limits
such as overweight landing,
(e) lightning strikes
(f) distress communications and alerting ATC
to emergencies,
(g) engine/burner failure,
(h) system failures,
(i) guidance for diversion in case of serious
technical failure,
(j) ground proximity warning, including for
helicopters audio voice alerting device
(AVAD) warning,
(k) ACAS/TCAS warning for aeroplanes/audio
voice alerting device (AVAD) warning for
helicopters,
(l) windshear,
(m) emergency landing/ditching,
(n) for aeroplanes, departure contingency
procedures
4 PERFORMANCE
4.0 Performance data should be provided in a
form that can be used without difficulty.
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4.1 Performance data. Performance material
that provides the necessary data for compliance
with the performance requirements prescribed
in Annex IV (Part-CAT). For aeroplanes, this
performance data should be included to allow
the determination of the following:
(a) take-off climb limits — mass, altitude,
temperature;
(b) take-off field length (for dry, wet and
contaminated runway conditions);
(c) net flight path data for obstacle clearance
calculation or, where applicable, take-off flight
path;
(d) the gradient losses for banked climb-outs;
(e) en-route climb limits;
(f) approach climb limits;
(g) landing climb limits;
(h) landing field length (for dry, wet and
contaminated runway conditions) including the
effects of an in-flight failure of a system or
device, if it affects the landing distance;
(i) brake energy limits;
(j) speeds applicable for the various flight
stages (also considering dry, wet and
contaminated runway conditions).
4.1.1 Supplementary data covering flights in
icing conditions. Any certified performance
related to an allowable configuration, or
configuration deviation, such as anti-skid
inoperative.
4.1.2 If performance data, as required for the
appropriate performance class, are not
available in the AFM, then other data should be
included. The OM may contain cross-reference
to the data contained in the AFM where such
data are not likely to be used often or in an
emergency.
4.2 Additional performance data for
aeroplanes. Additional performance data,
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where applicable, including the following:
(a) all engine climb gradients,
(b) drift-down data,
(c) effect of de-icing/anti-icing fluids,
(d) flight with landing gear down,
(e) for aircraft with 3 or more engines, one-
engine-inoperative ferry flights,
(f) flights conducted under the provisions of
the configuration deviation list (CDL).
5 FLIGHT PLANNING
5.1 Data and instructions necessary for pre-
flight and in-flight planning including, for
aeroplanes, factors such as speed schedules and
power settings. Where applicable, procedures
for engine(s)-out operations, ETOPS
(particularly the one-engineinoperative cruise
speed and maximum distance to an adequate
aerodrome determined in accordance with
Annex IV (Part-CAT)) and flights to isolated
aerodromes should be included.
5.2 The method for calculating fuel needed for
the various stages of flight.
5.3 When applicable, for aeroplanes,
performance data for ETOPS critical fuel
reserve and area of operation, including
sufficient data to support the critical fuel
reserve and area of operation calculation based
on approved aircraft performance data. The
following data should be included:
(a) detailed engine(s)-inoperative performance
data, including fuel flow for standard and non-
standard atmospheric conditions and as a
function of airspeed and power setting, where
appropriate, covering:
(i) drift down (includes net performance),
where applicable;
(ii) cruise altitude coverage including 10 000
ft;
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(iii) holding;
(iv) altitude capability (includes net
performance); and
(v) missed approach;
(b) detailed all-engine-operating performance
data, including nominal fuel flow data, for
standard and non-standard atmospheric
conditions and as a function of airspeed and
power setting, where appropriate, covering:
(i) cruise (altitude coverage including 10 000
ft); and
(ii) holding;
(c) details of any other conditions relevant to
ETOPS operations which can cause significant
deterioration of performance, such as ice
accumulation on the unprotected surfaces of
the aircraft, ram air turbine (RAT) deployment,
thrust-reverser deployment, etc.; and
(d) the altitudes, airspeeds, thrust settings, and
fuel flow used in establishing the ETOPS area
of operations for each airframe-engine
combination should be used in showing the
corresponding terrain and obstruction
clearances in accordance with Annex IV (Part-
CAT).
6 MASS AND BALANCE
Instructions and data for the calculation of the
mass and balance, including the following:
(a) calculation system (e.g. index system);
(b) information and instructions for completion
of mass and balance documentation, including
manual and computer generated types;
(c) limiting masses and centre of gravity for the
types, variants or individual aircraft used by
the operator;
(d) dry operating mass and corresponding
centre of gravity or index.
7 LOADING
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Procedures and provisions for loading and
unloading and securing the load in the aircraft
8 CONFIGURATION DEVIATION LIST
The CDL(s), if provided by the manufacturer,
taking account of the aircraft types and variants
operated, including procedures to be followed
when an aircraft is being dispatched under the
terms of its CDL.
10 SURVIVAL AND EMERGENCY
EQUIPMENT INCLUDING OXYGEN
10.1 A list of the survival equipment to be
carried for the routes to be flown and the
procedures for checking the serviceability of
this equipment prior to take-off. Instructions
regarding the location, accessibility and use of
survival and emergency equipment and its
associated checklist(s) should also be included.
10.2 The procedure for determining the amount
of oxygen required and the quantity that is
available. The flight profile, number of
occupants and possible cabin decompression
should be considered.
11 EMERGENCY EVACUATION
PROCEDURES
11.1 Instructions for preparation for emergency
evacuation, including crew coordination and
emergency station assignment. 11.2
Emergency evacuation procedures. A
11.2 Emergency evacuation procedures. A
description of the duties of all members of the
crew for the rapid evacuation of an aircraft and
the handling of the passengers in the event of a
forced landing, ditching or other emergency.
12 AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
A description of the aircraft systems, related
controls and indications and operating
instructions. Consideration should be given to
use the ATA number system when allocating
chapters and numbers.
C ROUTE/ROLE/AREA AND
AERODROME/OPERATING SITE
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INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
1 Instructions and information relating to
communications, navigation and
aerodromes/operating sites, including
minimum flight levels and altitudes for each
route to be flown and operating minima for
each aerodrome/operating site planned to be
used, including the following:
(a) minimum flight level/altitude;
(b) operating minima for departure, destination
and alternate aerodromes;
(c) communication facilities and navigation
aids;
(d) runway/final approach and take-off area
(FATO) data and aerodrome/operating site
facilities;
(e) approach, missed approach and departure
procedures including noise abatement
procedures;
(f) communication-failure procedures;
(g) search and rescue facilities in the area over
which the aircraft is to be flown;
(h) a description of the aeronautical charts that
should be carried on board in relation to the
type of flight and the route to be flown,
including the method to check their validity;
(i) availability of aeronautical information and
MET services;
(j) en-route communication/navigation
procedures;
(k) aerodrome/operating site categorisation for
flight crew competence qualification;
(l) special aerodrome/operating site limitations
(performance limitations and operating
procedures, etc.).
(2) Information related to landing sites
available for operations approved in
accordance with Subpart L (SET-IMC) of
Annex V (Part-SPA) to Regulation (EU) No
965/2012, including:
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(a) a description of the landing site (position,
surface, slope, elevation, etc.);
(b) the preferred landing direction; and
(c) obstacles in the area.
D TRAINING
1 Description of scope: Training syllabi and
checking programmes for all operations
personnel assigned to operational duties in
connection with the preparation and/or conduct
of a flight.
2 Content: Training syllabi and checking
programmes should include the following:
2.1 for flight crew, all relevant items prescribed
in Annex IV (Part-CAT), Annex V (PartSPA)
and ORO.FC;
2.2 for cabin crew, all relevant items prescribed
in Annex IV (Part-CAT), Annex V (PartCC) of
Commission Regulation (EU) 1178/2011 and
ORO.CC;
2.3 for technical crew, all relevant items
prescribed in Annex IV (Part-CAT), Annex V
(Part-SPA) and ORO.TC;
2.4 for operations personnel concerned,
including crew members:
(a) all relevant items prescribed in SPA.DG
Subpart G of Annex IV (SPA.DG); and
(b) all relevant items prescribed in Annex IV
(Part-CAT) and ORO.SEC; and
2.5 for operations personnel other than crew
members (e.g. dispatcher, handling personnel,
etc.), all other relevant items prescribed in
Annex IV (Part-CAT) and in this Annex
pertaining to their duties.
3 Procedures:
3.1 Procedures for training and checking.
3.2 Procedures to be applied in the event that
personnel do not achieve or maintain the
required standards.
3.3 Procedures to ensure that abnormal or
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emergency situations requiring the application
of part or all of the abnormal or emergency
procedures, and simulation of instrument
meteorological conditions (IMC) by artificial
means are not simulated during CAT
operations.
4 Description of documentation to be stored
and storage periods.
(b) Notwithstanding (a), an OM that is
compiled in accordance with JAR-OPS 3
amendment 5 may be considered to be
compliant.
(c) If there are sections that, because of the
nature of the operation, do not apply, it is
recommended that operators maintain the
numbering system described in ORO.MLR.101
and above and insert ‘Not applicable’ or
‘Intentionally blank’ where appropriate.
AMC4 ORO.MLR.100 Operations manual - ---
General
CONTENTS – NON-COMMERCIAL ---
SPECIALISED OPERATIONS WITH
COMPLEX MOTOR-POWERED AIRCRAFT
AND COMMERCIAL SPECIALISED
OPERATIONS
(a) The OM should contain at least the ---
following information, where applicable, as
relevant to the area and type of operation:
A GENERAL/BASIC
For chapters 0-7 refer to AMC3
ORO.MLR.100. In addition:
6.2 The relevant regulations and guidance to
crew members concerning dangerous goods
used for specialised tasks (pesticides and
chemicals, etc.).
8 OPERATING PROCEDURES
8.1 Flight preparation instructions. As
applicable to the operation:
8.1.1 General procedures;
8.1.2 Minimum flight altitudes. A description
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of the method of determination and application
of minimum altitudes, including a procedure to
establish the minimum altitudes/flight levels;
8.1.3 Criteria and responsibilities for
determining the adequacy of
aerodromes/operating sites to be used;
8.1.4 Interpretation of meteorological
information. Explanatory material on the
decoding of MET forecasts and MET reports
relevant to the area of operations, including the
interpretation of conditional expressions;
8.1.5 Determination of the quantities of fuel,
oil and water methanol carried. The methods
by which the quantities of fuel, oil and water
methanol to be carried are determined and
monitored in-flight. The system for
maintaining fuel and oil records should also be
described;
8.1.6 Procedure for the determination of the
mass of loads, the calculation of performance
margins and the centre of gravity;
8.1.7 Emergency procedures, e.g. load, fuel or
chemical jettison (to include the actions of all
personnel);
8.1.8 System for supply of NOTAMS,
meteorological and other safety-critical
information both at base and in field locations;
8.1.9 Mandatory equipment for specific tasks
(mirror, cargo sling, load cell, special radio
equipment, radar altimeters, etc.);
8.1.10Guidance on the CDL and MEL;
8.1.11Policy on completion and carriage of
documents including operator’s aircraft
technical log and journey log, or equivalent;
8.1.12Any task-specific standard operating
procedures not covered above.
8.2 Ground handling instructions. As
applicable to the operation:
8.2.1 Briefing requirements for in-flight and
ground task specialists;
8.2.2 Decontamination procedures;
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8.2.3 Fuelling procedures, including safety
precautions during refuelling and defuelling
including quality checks required in the field
location, precautions against spillage and
environmental damage;
8.2.4. De-icing and anti-icing on the ground. A
description of the de-icing and antiicing policy
and procedures for aircraft on the ground.
8.3 Flight procedures. As applicable to the
operation:
8.3.1 Procedures relevant to the aircraft type,
specific task and area;
8.3.2 Altimeter setting procedures;
8.3.3 Actions following alerts from audio
warning devices;
8.3.4 GPWS/TAWS for aeroplanes. Procedures
and instructions required for the avoidance of
controlled flight into terrain, including
limitations on high rate of descent near the
surface (the related training requirements are
covered in OM-D 2.1);
8.3.5 Policy and procedures for the use of
TCAS/ACAS for aeroplanes and, when
applicable, for helicopters;
8.3.6 Policy and procedures for in-flight fuel
management;
8.3.7 Procedures for operating in adverse and
potentially hazardous atmospheric conditions;
8.3.8 Wake turbulence and rotor downwash for
helicopters;
8.3.9 Use of restraint devices;
8.3.10Policy on use of vacant seats;
8.3.11Cabin safety requirements including
smoking.
8.4 Task-specific weather limitations.
8.5 Use of the minimum equipment and
configuration deviation list(s).
8.6 Oxygen requirements. An explanation of
the conditions under which oxygen should be
provided and used (altitude, exposure times,
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night etc.).
9 DANGEROUS GOODS AND WEAPONS
9.1 Information, instruction and general
guidance on the transport of dangerous goods
as internal or external loads, including:
9.1.1 The operator's policy on the transport of
dangerous goods;
9.1.2 Guidance on the requirements for
acceptance, labelling, handling, stowage, and
segregation of dangerous goods;
9.1.3 Procedures for responding to emergency
situations involving dangerous goods;
9.1.4 Duties of all personnel involved; and
9.1.5 Instructions on carriage of the operator’s
personnel on cargo aircraft when dangerous
goods are being carried.
9.2 The conditions under which weapons,
munitions of war and sporting weapons may be
carried.
10 SECURITY
Security instructions, guidance, procedures,
training and responsibilities, taking into
account Regulation (EC) No 300/2008. Some
parts of the security instructions and guidance
may be kept confidential.
11 HANDLING, NOTIFYING AND
REPORTING ACCIDENTS, INCIDENTS
AND OCCURRENCES, AND USING THE
CVR RECORDINGS
Procedures for handling, notifying and
reporting accidents, incidents and occurrences.
This section should include:
11.1 Definitions of accidents and occurrences
and responsibilities of all persons involved;
11.2 Reporting procedures (including any
mandatory forms);
11.3 Special notification when dangerous
goods are carried; and
11.4 Procedures for the preservation of
recordings of the flight recorders in order to
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prevent inadvertent reactivation, repair or
reinstallation of the flight recorders following
an accident or a serious incident or when this
preservation is directed by the investigating
authority.
12 RULES OF THE AIR
In addition to the items referred to in AMC3
ORO.MLR.100, territorial procedures for
obtaining permissions and exemptions, e.g. for
underslung loads and lowflying clearances.
13 LEASING
Refer to AMC3 ORO.MLR.100
B AIRCRAFT OPERATING MATTERS —
TYPE RELATED
For chapters 0-1 refer to AMC3
ORO.MLR.100.
2 NORMAL PROCEDURES
The normal procedures and duties assigned to
the crew, the appropriate checklists and the
system for their use, including any task or
specific role equipment procedures not
contained in the AFM.
3 ABNORMAL AND/OR EMERGENCY
PROCEDURES
The abnormal and/or emergency procedures
and duties assigned to the crew, the appropriate
checklists and the system for their use,
including any task or specific role equipment
emergency procedures not contained in the
AFM.
4 PERFORMANCE
4.1 Performance data should be provided in a
form in which it can be used without difficulty.
4.2 Performance data. Performance material
which provides the necessary data for
compliance with the performance requirements
prescribed in Part-SPO.
5 FLIGHT PLANNING
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5.1 Data and instructions necessary for pre-
flight and in-flight planning.
5.2 Procedures for specialised tasks.
6 MASS AND BALANCE
Instructions and data for the calculation of the
mass and balance, including:
6.1 Calculation system (e.g. index system);
6.2 Information and instructions for completion
of mass and balance documentation; and
6.3 Limitations.
7 LOADING
Refer to AMC3 ORO.MLR.100.
8 CONFIGURATION DEVIATION LIST
(CDL)
Refer to AMC3 ORO.MLR.100.
9 MINIMUM EQUIPMENT LIST (MEL)
The MEL for each aircraft type or variant
operated and the type(s)/area(s) of operation. It
should also contain procedures to be followed
when an aircraft is being dispatched with one
or more inoperative items, in accordance with
the MEL.
10 SURVIVAL AND EMERGENCY
EQUIPMENT INCLUDING OXYGEN
10.1 A list of the survival equipment to be
carried, taking into account the nature of the
area of operation, such as a hostile or a non-
hostile environment.
10.2 A checklist for assessing the serviceability
of the equipment and instructions for its use
prior to take-off.
10.3 The procedure for determining the amount
of oxygen required and the quantity that is
available.
11 EMERGENCY EVACUATION
PROCEDURES
11.1 Emergency evacuation procedures, crew
coordination and occupant handling in the
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event of a forced landing, ditching or other
emergency.
12 AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
A description of the aircraft systems and all
equipment specific to the tasks. Additional
equipment, systems or fitting, related special
procedures including any supplements to the
AFM.
C TASKS AND OPERATING AREAS
INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
Specific instructions related to the specialised
tasks and operating areas in accordance with
AMC3 ORO.MLR.100.
D TRAINING
1 Training syllabi and checking programmes
for all operations personnel assigned to
operational duties in connection with the
preparation and/or conduct of a flight.
2 Training syllabi and checking programmes
should include:
2.1 For flight crew, all relevant items
prescribed in Part-SPO, Part-SPA and this Part;
2.2 For other crew members, all relevant items
prescribed in Part-SPO and this Part, as
applicable;
2.3 For in-flight and ground task specialists
concerned, including crew members:
a. All relevant items prescribed in SPA.DG;
and
b. All relevant items prescribed in Part-SPO
and ORO.SEC; and
2.4 For operations personnel other than crew
members, all other relevant items pertaining to
their duties prescribed in Part-SPO and this
Part.
3 Procedures:
3.1 Procedures for training and checking.
3.2 Procedures to be applied in the event that
personnel do not achieve or maintain the
required standards.
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3.3 A system for tracking expiry dates for
qualifications, checks, tests, recency and
licences.
4 Description of documentation to be stored
and storage periods.
(b) If there are sections that, because of the
nature of the operation, do not apply, it is
recommended that operators maintain the
numbering system described in ORO.MLR.101
and above and insert ‘Not applicable’ or
‘Intentionally blank’ where appropriate.
ORO.MLR.101 Operations manual — Except for operations with single engined ---
structure propeller-driven aeroplanes with a MOPSC of
5 or single engined non-complex helicopters
with a MOPSC of 5, taking off and landing at
the same aerodrome or operating site, under
VFR by day, and for operations with sailplanes
and balloons, the main structure of the OM
shall be as follows:
(a) Part A: General/Basic, comprising all non-
type-related operational policies, instructions
and procedures;
(b) Part B: Aircraft operating matters,
comprising all type-related instructions and
procedures, taking into account differences
between types/classes, variants or individual
aircraft used by the operator;
(c) Part C: Commercial air transport
operations, comprising route/role/area and
aerodrome/operating site instructions and
information;
(d) Part D: Training, comprising all training
instructions for personnel required for a safe
operation.
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ORO.MLR.105 Minimum equipment list (a) A minimum equipment list (MEL) shall be
established as specified under point 8.a.3 of
- GM1 ORO.MLR.105(a) Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008,
- GM1 ORO.MLR.105(d)(3) based on the relevant master minimum
- GM2 ORO.MLR.105(d)(3) equipment list (MMEL) as defined in the data
- GM1 ORO.MLR.105(e);(f) established in accordance with Regulation
- GM1 OR.OPS.MLR.105(f) (EU) No 748/2012. If an MMEL has not been
- GM1 ORO.MLR.105(g) established as part of the operational suitability
- GM1 ORO.MLR.105(j) data, the MEL may be based on the relevant
MMEL accepted by the State of Operator or
Registry as applicable.
(b) The MEL and any amendment thereto shall YES
be approved by the competent authority.
(c) The operator shall amend the MEL after
any applicable change to the MMEL within the
acceptable timescales.
(d) In addition to the list of items, the MEL ---
shall contain:
(1) a preamble, including guidance and
definitions for flight crews and maintenance
personnel using the MEL;
(2) the revision status of the MMEL upon
which the MEL is based and the revision status
of the MEL;
(3) the scope, extent and purpose of the MEL.
(e) The operator shall: ---
(1) establish rectification intervals for each
inoperative instrument, item of equipment or
function listed in the MEL. The rectification
interval in the MEL shall not be less restrictive
than the corresponding rectification interval in
the MMEL;
(2) establish an effective rectification
programme;
(3) only operate the aircraft after expiry of the ---
rectification interval specified in the MEL
when:
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(i) the defect has been rectified; or
(ii) the rectification interval has been extended
in accordance with (f).
(f) Subject to approval of the competent YES ---
authority, the operator may use a procedure for
the one time extension of category B, C and D
rectification intervals, provided that:
(1) the extension of the rectification interval is
within the scope of the MMEL for the aircraft
type;
(2) the extension of the rectification interval is,
as a maximum, of the same duration as the
rectification interval specified in the MEL;
(3) the rectification interval extension is not
used as a normal means of conducting MEL
item rectification and is used only when events
beyond the control of the operator have
precluded rectification;
(4) a description of specific duties and
responsibilities for controlling extensions is
established by the operator;
(5) the competent authority is notified of any
extension of the applicable rectification
interval; and
(6) a plan to accomplish the rectification at the
earliest opportunity is established.
(g) The operator shall establish the operational
and maintenance procedures referenced in the
MEL taking into account the operational and
maintenance procedures referenced in the
MMEL. These procedures shall be part of the
operator’s manuals or the MEL.
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(h) The operator shall amend the operational
and maintenance procedures referenced in the
MEL after any applicable change to the
operational and maintenance procedures
referenced in the MMEL.
(i) Unless otherwise specified in the MEL, the ---
operator shall complete:
(1) the operational procedures referenced in the
MEL when planning for and/or operating with
the listed item inoperative; and
(2) the maintenance procedures referenced in
the MEL prior to operating with the listed item
inoperative.
(j) Subject to a specific case-by-case approval YES ---
by the competent authority, the operator may
operate an aircraft with inoperative
instruments, items of equipment or functions
outside the constraints of the MEL but within
the constraints of the MMEL, provided that:
(1) the concerned instruments, items of
equipment or functions are within the scope of
the MMEL as defined in point (a);
(2) the approval is not used as a normal means
of conducting operations outside the
constraints of the approved MEL and is used
only when events beyond the control of the
operator have precluded the MEL compliance;
(3) a description of specific duties and
responsibilities for controlling the operation of
the aircraft under such approval is established
by the operator; and
(4) a plan to rectify the inoperative
instruments, items of equipment or functions or
to return operating the aircraft under the MEL
constraints at the earliest opportunity is
established.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.105(c) Minimum ---
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equipment list
AMENDMENTS TO THE MEL ---
FOLLOWING CHANGES TO THE MMEL –
APPLICABLE CHANGES AND
ACCEPTABLE TIMESCALES
(a) The following are applicable changes to the ---
MMEL that require amendment of the MEL:
(1) a reduction of the rectification interval;
(2) change of an item, only when the change is
applicable to the aircraft or type of operations
and is more restrictive.
(b) An acceptable timescale for submitting the
amended MEL to the competent authority is 90
days from the effective date specified in the
approved change to the MMEL.
(c) Reduced timescales for the implementation
of safety related amendments may be required
if the Agency and/or competent authority
consider it necessary.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.105(d) Minimum
equipment list
MEL FORMAT
(a) The MEL format and the presentation of
items and dispatch conditions should reflect
those of the MMEL.
(b) The ATA 100/2200 Specification
numbering system for MEL items is preferred.
(c) Other formats and item numbering systems
may be used provided they are clear and
unambiguous.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.105(d)(1) Minimum
equipment list
MEL PREAMBLE
The MEL preamble should:
(a) reflect the content of the MMEL preamble
as applicable to the MEL scope and extent;
(b) contain terms and definitions used in the
MEL;
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(c) contain any other relevant specific
information for the MEL scope and use that is
not originally provided in the MMEL;
(d) provide guidance on how to identify the
origin of a failure or malfunction to the extent
necessary for appropriate application of the
MEL;
(e) contain guidance on the management of
multiple unserviceabilities, based on the
guidance given in the MMEL; and
(f) contain guidance on placarding of
inoperative items to inform crew members of
equipment condition, as appropriate. In
particular, when such items are accessible to
the crew during flight, the control(s) and
indicator(s) related to inoperative unit(s)
should be clearly placarded.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.105(d)(3) Minimum
equipment list
SCOPE OF THE MEL
The MEL should include:
(a) The dispatch conditions associated with
flights conducted in accordance with special
approvals held by the operator in accordance
with Part-SPA.
(b) specific provision for particular types of
operations carried out by the operator. in
accordance with ORO.AOC.125.
AMC2 ORO.MLR.105(d)(3) Minimum ---
equipment list
EXTENT OF THE MEL ---
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The operator should include guidance in the
MEL on how to deal with any failures that
occur between the commencement of the flight
and the start of the take-off. If a failure occurs
between the commencement of the flight and
the start of the take-off, any decision to
continue the flight should be subject to pilot
judgement and good airmanship. The pilot-in-
command/commander may refer to the MEL
before any decision to continue the flight is
taken.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.105(f) Minimum ---
equipment list
RECTIFICATION INTERVAL EXTENSION ---
(RIE) - OPERATOR PROCEDURES FOR
THE APPROVAL BY THE COMPETENT
AUTHORITY AND NOTIFICATION TO
THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY
(a) The operator’s procedures to address the
extension of rectification intervals and ongoing
surveillance to ensure compliance should
provide the competent authority with details of
the name and position of the nominated
personnel responsible for the control of the
operator’s rectification interval extension (RIE)
procedures and details of the specific duties
and responsibilities established to control the
use of RIEs.
(b) Personnel authorising RIEs should be
adequately trained in technical and/or
operational disciplines to accomplish their
duties. They should have necessary operational
knowledge in terms of operational use of the
MEL as alleviating documents by flight crew
and maintenance personnel and engineering
competence. The authorising personnel should
be listed by appointment and name.
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(c) The operator should notify the competent
authority within 1 month of the extension of
the applicable rectification interval or within
the appropriated timescales specified by the
approved procedure for the RIE.
(d) The notification should be made in a form
determined by the competent authority and
should specify the original defect, all such
uses, the reason for the RIE and the reasons
why rectification was not carried out within the
original rectification interval.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.105(g) Minimum ---
equipment list
OPERATIONAL AND MAINTENANCE ---
PROCEDURES
(a) The operational and maintenance
procedures referenced in the MEL should be
based on the operational and maintenance
procedures referenced in the MMEL. Modified
procedures may, however, be developed by the
operator when they provide the same level of
safety as required by the MMEL. Modified
maintenance procedures should be developed
in accordance with Commission Regulation
(EC) No 2042/2003.
(b) Providing appropriate operational and
maintenance procedures referenced in the
MEL, regardless of who developed them, is the
responsibility of the operator.
(c) Any item in the MEL requiring an
operational or maintenance procedure to ensure
an acceptable level of safety should be so
identified in the ‘remarks’ or ’exceptions’
column/part/section of the MEL. This will
normally be ‘(O)’ for an operational procedure,
or ’(M)’ for a maintenance procedure. ‘(O)(M)’
means both operational and maintenance
procedures are required.
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(d) The satisfactory accomplishment of all
procedures, regardless of who performs them,
is the responsibility of the operator.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.105(h) Minimum ---
equipment list
OPERATIONAL AND MAINTENANCE ---
PROCEDURES - APPLICABLE CHANGES
(a) Changes to the operational and maintenance ---
procedures referenced in the MMEL are
considered applicable and require the
amendment of the maintenance and operating
procedures referenced in the MEL when:
(1) the modified procedure is applicable to the
operator’s MEL; and
(2) the purpose of this change is to improve
compliance with the intent of the associated
MMEL dispatch condition.
(b) An acceptable timescale for the
amendments of maintenance and operating
procedures, as defined in (a), should be 90 days
from the date when the amended procedures
referenced in the MMEL are made available.
Reduced timescales for the implementation of
safety related amendments may be required if
the competent authority considers it necessary.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.105(j) Minimum ---
equipment list
OPERATION OF AN AIRCRAFT WITHIN ---
THE CONSTRAINTS OF THE MMEL -
OPERATOR’S PROCEDURES FOR THE
APPROVAL BY THE COMPETENT
AUTHORITY
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(a) The operator’s procedures to address the
operation of an aircraft outside the constraints
of the MEL but within the constraints of the
MMEL and ongoing surveillance to ensure
compliance should provide the competent
authority with details of the name and position
of the nominated personnel responsible for the
control of the operations under such conditions
and details of the specific duties and
responsibilities established to control the use of
the approval.
(b) Personnel authorising operations under
such approval should be adequately trained in
technical and operational disciplines to
accomplish their duties. They should have the
necessary operational knowledge in terms of
operational use of the MEL as alleviating
documents by flight crew and maintenance
personnel and engineering competence. The
authorising personnel should be listed by
appointment and name.
ORO.MLR.110 Journey log Particulars of the aircraft, its crew and each
journey shall be retained for each flight, or
- GM1 ORO.MLR.110 series of flights, in the form of a journey log, or
equivalent.
AMC1 ORO.MLR.110 Journey log ---
GENERAL ---
(a) The aircraft journey log, or equivalent, ---
should include the following items, where
applicable:
(1) aircraft nationality and registration,
(2) date,
(3) name(s) of crew member(s),
(4) duty assignments of crew member(s),
(5) place of departure,
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(6) place of arrival,
(7) time of departure,
(8) time of arrival,
(9) hours of flight,
(10) nature of flight (scheduled or non-
scheduled),
(11) incidents, observations, if any,
(12) signature of person in charge.
(b) The information, or parts thereof, may be
recorded in a form other than on printed paper.
Accessibility, usability and reliability should
be assured.
(c) ‘Journey log, or equivalent’, means that the
required information may be recorded in
documentation other than a log book, such as
the operational flight plan or the aircraft
technical log.
(d) ‘Series of flights’, means consecutive ---
flights, which begin and end:
(1) within a 24 hour period;
(2) at the same aerodrome or operating site or
remain within a local area specified in the
operations manual; and
(3) with the same pilot-in-
command/commander of the aircraft.
ORO.MLR.115 Record-keeping (a) The following records shall be stored for at
- GM1 ORO.MLR.115(c) least 5 years
- GM1 ORO.MLR.115(d)
(1) for CAT operators, records of the activities
referred to in ORO.GEN.200;
(2) for declared operators, a copy of the
operator’s declaration, details of approvals held
and operations manual;
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(3) for SPO authorisation holders, in addition
to (a)(2), records related to the risk assessment
conducted in accordance with SPO.OP.230 and
related standard operating procedures.
(b) The following information used for the ---
preparation and execution of a flight, and
associated reports, shall be stored for three
months:
(1) the operational flight plan, if applicable;
(2) route-specific notice(s) to airmen
(NOTAM) and aeronautical information
services (AIS) briefing documentation, if
edited by the operator;
(3) mass and balance documentation;
(4) notification of special loads, including
written information to the commander/pilot-in-
command about dangerous goods;
(5) the journey log, or equivalent; and
(6) flight report(s) for recording details of any
occurrence, or any event that the
commander/pilot-in-command deems
necessary to report or record;
(c) Personnel records shall be stored for the
periods indicated below:
(*See corresponding table)
(d) The operator shall: ---
(1) maintain records of all training, checking
and qualifications of each crew member, as
prescribed in Part-ORO; and
(2) make such records available, on request, to
the crew member concerned.
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(e) The operator shall preserve the information
used for the preparation and execution of a
flight and personnel training records, even if
the operator ceases to be the operator of that
aircraft or the employer of that crew member,
provided this is within the timescales
prescribed in (c).
(f) If a crew member becomes a crew member
for another operator, the operator shall make
the crew member’s records available to the
new operator, provided this is within the
timescales prescribed in (c).
AMC1 ORO.MLR.115 Record-keeping ---
TRAINING RECORDS ---
A summary of training should be maintained
by the operator to show every crew member’s
completion of each stage of training and
checking.
---
SUBPART SEC ---
SECURITY ---
ORO.SEC.100.A Flight crew compartment (a) In an aeroplane which is equipped with a
security flight crew compartment door, this door shall
be capable of being locked, and means shall be
provided by which the cabin crew can notify
the flight crew in the event of suspicious
activity or security breaches in the cabin.
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(b) All passenger-carrying aeroplanes of a
maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding
45 500 kg, or with a MOPSC of more than 60
engaged in the commercial transportation of
passengers, shall be equipped with an approved
flight crew compartment door that is capable of
being locked and unlocked from either pilot’s
station and designed to meet the applicable
airworthiness requirements.
(c) In all aeroplanes which are equipped with a ---
flight crew compartment door in accordance
with point (b) above:
(1) this door shall be closed prior to engine
start for take-off and will be locked when
required by security procedures or by the pilot-
in-command until engine shut down after
landing, except when deemed necessary for
authorised persons to access or egress in
compliance with national civil aviation security
programmes; and
(2) means shall be provided for monitoring
from either pilot’s station the entire door area
outside the flight crew compartment to identify
persons requesting entry and to detect
suspicious behaviour or potential threat.
ORO.SEC.100.H Flight crew compartment If installed, the flight crew compartment door
security on a helicopter operated for the purpose of
carrying passengers shall be capable of being
locked from within the flight crew
compartment in order to prevent unauthorised
access.
---
SUBPART FC ---
FLIGHT CREW ---
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ORO.FC.005 Scope This Subpart establishes requirements to be ---
met by the operator related to flight crew
training, experience and qualification and
comprises:
(a) SECTION 1 specifying common
requirements applicable to both non-
commercial operations of complex motor-
powered aircraft and any commercial
operation;
(b) SECTION 2 specifying additional
requirements applicable to commercial air
transport operations, with the exception of:
(1) commercial air transport operations of
sailplanes or balloons; or
(2) commercial air transport operations of
passengers conducted under visual flight rules
(VFR) by day, starting and ending at the same
aerodrome or operating site and within a local
area specified by the competent authority, with
– single-engined propeller-driven aeroplanes
having a maximum certified take-off mass of 5
700 kg or less and a MOPSC of 5, or
– other-than complex motor-powered
helicopters, single-engined, with a MOPSC of
5.
(c) SECTION 3 specifying additional
requirements for commercial specialised
operations and for those referred to in b(1) and
(2).
ORO.FC.100 Composition of flight crew (a) The composition of the flight crew and the
number of flight crew members at designated
crew stations shall be not less than the
minimum specified in the aircraft flight manual
or operating limitations prescribed for the
aircraft.
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(b) The flight crew shall include additional
flight crew members when required by the type
of operation and shall not be reduced below the
number specified in the operations manual.
(c) All flight crew members shall hold a
licence and ratings issued or accepted in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011 and appropriate to the duties
assigned to them.
(d) The flight crew member may be relieved in
flight of his/her duties at the controls by
another suitably qualified flight crew member.
(e) When engaging the services of flight crew ---
members who are working on a freelance or
part-time basis, the operator shall verify that all
applicable requirements of this Subpart and the
relevant elements of Annex I (Part-FCL) to
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, including the
requirements on recent experience, are
complied with, taking into account all services
rendered by the flight crew member to other
operator(s) to determine in particular:
(1) the total number of aircraft types or variants
operated; and
(2) the applicable flight and duty time
limitations and rest requirements.
AMC1 ORO.FC.100(c) Composition of ---
flight crew
OPERATIONAL MULTI-PILOT ---
LIMITATION (OML)
The operator should ensure that pilots with an
OML on their medical certificate only operate
aircraft in multi-pilot operations when the other
pilot is fully qualified on the relevant type of
aircraft, is not subject to an OML and has not
attained the age of 60 years.
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ORO.FC.105 Designation as pilot-in- (a) In accordance with 8.e of Annex IV to
command/commander Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, one pilot
amongst the flight crew, qualified as pilot-in-
- GM1 ORO.FC.105 (b)(2) command in accordance with Annex I (Part-
- GM1 ORO.FC.105(d) FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, shall
be designated by the operator as pilot-in-
command/commander.
(b) The operator shall only designate a flight ---
crew member to act as pilot-in-
command/commander if he/she has:
(1) the minimum level of experience specified
in the operations manual;
(2) adequate knowledge of the route or area to
be flown and of the aerodromes, including
alternate aerodromes, facilities and procedures
to be used;
(3) in the case of multi-crew operations,
completed an operator’s command course if
upgrading from co-pilot to pilot-in-
command/commander.
(c) In the case of commercial operations of
aeroplanes and helicopters, the pilot-
incommand/commander or the pilot, to whom
the conduct of the flight may be delegated,
shall have had initial familiarisation training of
the route or area to be flown and of the
aerodromes, facilities and procedures to be
used. This route/area and aerodrome
knowledge shall be maintained by operating at
least once on the route or area or to the
aerodrome within a 12- month period.
(d) Point (c) shall not apply in the case of:
(1) performance class B aeroplanes involved in
commercial air transport operations under VFR
by day; and
(2) commercial air transport operations of
passengers conducted under VFR by day,
starting and ending at the same aerodrome or
operating site or within a local area specified
by the competent authority, with other-than
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complex motor-powered helicopters,
singleengined, with a MOPSC of 5.
AMC1 ORO.FC.105(b)(2);(c) Designation as ---
pilot-in-command/commander
ROUTE/AREA AND AERODROME ---
KNOWLEDGE FOR COMMERCIAL
OPERATIONS
For commercial operations, the experience of ---
the route or area to be flown and of the
aerodrome facilities and procedures to be used
should include the following:
(a) Area and route knowledge ---
(1) Area and route training should include ---
knowledge of:
(i) terrain and minimum safe altitudes;
(ii) seasonal meteorological conditions;
(iii) meteorological, communication and air
traffic facilities, services and procedures;
(iv) search and rescue procedures where
available; and
(v) navigational facilities associated with the
area or route along which the flight is to take
place.
(2) Depending on the complexity of the area or ---
route, as assessed by the operator, the
following methods of familiarisation should be
used:
(i) for the less complex areas or routes,
familiarisation by self-briefing with route
documentation, or by means of programmed
instruction; and
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(ii) in addition, for the more complex areas or
routes, in-flight familiarisation as a pilot-in-
command/commander or co-pilot under
supervision, observer, or familiarisation in a
flight simulation training device (FSTD) using
a database appropriate to the route concerned.
(b) Aerodrome knowledge ---
(1) Aerodrome training should include
knowledge of obstructions, physical layout,
lighting, approach aids and arrival, departure,
holding and instrument approach procedures,
applicable operating minima and ground
movement considerations.
(2) The operations manual should describe the
method of categorisation of aerodromes and, in
the case of CAT operations, provide a list of
those aerodrome categorised as B or C.
(3) All aerodromes to which an operator ---
operates should be categorised in one of these
three categories:
(i) category A - an aerodrome that meets all of ---
the following requirements:
(A) an approved instrument approach
procedure;
(B) at least one runway with no performance
limited procedure for take-off and/or landing;
(C) published circling minima not higher than
1 000 ft above aerodrome level; and
(D) night operations capability.
(ii) category B - an aerodrome that does not ---
meet the category A requirements or which
requires extra considerations such as:
(A) non-standard approach aids and/or
approach patterns;
(B) unusual local weather conditions;
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(C) unusual characteristics or performance
limitations; or
(D) any other relevant considerations including
obstructions, physical layout, lighting etc.
(iii) category C - an aerodrome that requires
additional considerations to a category B
aerodrome;
Applicable until 01/07/2018, then it will be (iv) offshore installations may be categorised
replaced with the version below. as category B or C aerodromes, taking into
account the limitations determined in
accordance with AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.105
Use of aerodromes and operating sites.
Applicable from 01/07/2018. Will replace the (iv) offshore installations may be categorised
paragraph above. as category B or C aerodromes, taking into
account the limitations determined in
accordance with AMC1 SPA.HOFO.115 ‘Use
of offshore locations’.
(c) Prior to operating to a: ---
(1) category B aerodrome, the pilot-in-
command/commander should be briefed, or
self-briefed by means of programmed
instruction, on the category B aerodrome(s)
concerned. The completion of the briefing
should be recorded. This recording may be
accomplished after completion or confirmed by
the pilot-in-command/commander before
departure on a flight involving category B
aerodrome(s) as destination or alternate
aerodromes.
(2) category C aerodrome, the pilot-in-
command/commander should be briefed and
visit the aerodrome as an observer and/or
undertake instruction in a suitable FSTD. The
completion of the briefing, visit and/or
instruction should be recorded.
AMC1 ORO.FC.105(c) Designation as pilot- ---
in-command/commander
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ROUTE/AREA AND AERODROME ---
RECENCY
(a) The 12-month period should be counted ---
from the last day of the month:
(1) when the familiarisation training was
undertaken; or
(2) of the latest operation on the route or area
to be flown and of the aerodromes, facilities
and procedures to be used.
(b) When the operation is undertaken within
the last 3 calendar months of that period, the
new 12-month period should be counted from
the original expiry date.
AMC2 ORO.FC.105(c) Designation as pilot- ---
in-command/commander
ROUTE/AREA AND AERODROME ---
RECENCY - PERFORMANCE CLASS B
AEROPLANES OPERATED UNDER VFR
BY NIGHT OR IFR IN CAT OPERATIONS
AND COMMERCIAL OPERATIONS
OTHER THAN CAT
In the case of CAT operations with
performance class B aeroplanes operating
under visual flight rules (VFR) by night or
instrument flight rules (IFR) or commercial
operations other than CAT, the knowledge
should be maintained as follows:
(a) except for operations to the most
demanding aerodromes, by completion of at
least 10 flight sectors within the area of
operation during the preceding 12 months in
addition to any required self-briefing;
(b) operations to the most demanding ---
aerodromes may be performed only if:
(1) the pilot-in-command/commander has been
qualified at the aerodrome within the preceding
36 months by a visit as an operating flight crew
member or as an observer;
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(2) the approach is performed in visual
meteorological conditions (VMC) from the
applicable minimum sector altitude; and
(3) an adequate self-briefing has been made
prior to the flight.
ORO.FC.110 Flight engineer When a separate flight engineer station is
incorporated in the design of an aeroplane, the
flight crew shall include one crew member who
is suitably qualified in accordance with
applicable national rules.
ORO.FC.115 Crew resource management (a) Before operating, the flight crew member
(CRM) training shall have received CRM training, appropriate
to his/her role, as specified in the operations
manual.
(b) Elements of CRM training shall be included
in the aircraft type or class training and
recurrent training as well as in the command
course.
AMC1 ORO.FC.115 Crew resource (a) General
management (CRM) training (1) Training environment
CRM TRAINING — MULTI-PILOT CRM training should be conducted in the non-
OPERATIONS operational environment (classroom and
- GM1 ORO.FC.115 computer-based) and in the operational
- GM2 ORO.FC.115 environment (flight simulation training device
- GM3 ORO.FC.115 (FSTD) and aircraft). Tools such as group
- GM4 ORO.FC.115 discussions, team task analysis, team task
- GM5 ORO.FC.115 simulation and feedback should be used.
- GM6 ORO.FC.115
- GM7 ORO.FC.115
(2) Classroom training
Whenever possible, classroom training should
be conducted in a group session away from
the pressures of the usual working
environment, so that the opportunity is
provided for flight crew members to interact
and communicate in an environment
conducive to learning.
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(3) Computer-based training
Computer-based training should not be
conducted as a stand-alone training method,
but may be conducted as a complementary
training method.
(4) Flight simulation training devices (FSTDs)
Whenever practicable, parts of the CRM
training should be conducted in FSTDs that
reproduce a realistic operational environment
and permit interaction. This includes but is
not limited to line-oriented flight training
(LOFT) scenarios.
(5) Integration into flight crew training
CRM principles should be integrated into
relevant parts of flight crew training and
operations including checklists, briefings,
abnormal and emergency procedures.
(6) Combined CRM training for flight crew,
cabin crew and technical crew
(i) Operators should provide combined training
for flight crew, cabin crew and
technical crew during recurrent CRM training.
(ii) The combined training should address at
least:
(A) effective communication, coordination of
tasks and functions of flight crew,
cabin crew and technical crew; and
(B) mixed multinational and cross-cultural
flight crew, cabin crew and technical
crew, and their interaction, if applicable.
(iii) The combined training should be expanded
to include medical passengers, if
applicable to the operation.
(iv) Combined CRM training should be
conducted by flight crew CRM trainer or cabin
crew CRM trainer.
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(v) There should be an effective liaison
between flight crew, cabin crew and technical
crew training departments. Provision should be
made for transfer of relevant
knowledge and skills between flight crew,
cabin crew and technical crew CRM
trainers.
(7) Management system
CRM training should address hazards and risks
identified by the operator’s management
system described in ORO.GEN.200.
(8) Competency-based CRM training
(i) Whenever practicable, the compliance-
based approach concerning CRM training
may be substituted by a competency-based
approach such as evidence-based
training. In this context, CRM training should
be characterised by a performance
orientation, with emphasis on standards of
performance and their measurement,
and the development of training to the
specified performance standards.
(ii) CRM training should be an essential
element of the alternative training and
qualification programme (ATQP) described in
ORO.FC.A.245, when the operator applies
ATQP.
(9) Contracted CRM training
If the operator chooses not to establish its own
CRM training, another operator, a third
party or a training organisation may be
contracted to provide the training in
accordance with ORO.GEN.205. In case of
contracted CRM training, the operator should
ensure that the content of the course covers the
specific culture, the type of operations and the
associated procedures of the operator. When
crew members from different operators
attend the same course, the CRM training
should be specific to the relevant flight
operations and to the trainees concerned.
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(b) Initial operator’s CRM training
(1) The flight crew member should complete
the initial operator’s CRM training once. When
the type of operation of a new operator is not
different, the new operator should not be
required to provide the initial operator’s CRM
training to this flight crew member a second
time.
(2) The initial training should cover all
elements specified in Table 1 of (g).
(c) Operator conversion course — CRM
training
When the flight crew member undertakes a
conversion course with a change of aircraft
type or change of operator, elements of CRM
training should be integrated into all
appropriate phases of the operator’s conversion
course, as specified in Table 1 of (g).
(d) Annual recurrent CRM training
(1) Annual recurrent CRM training should be
provided in such a way that all CRM training
elements specified for the annual recurrent
training in Table 1 of (g) are covered over a
period not exceeding 3 years.
(2) Operators should update their CRM
recurrent training programme over a period not
exceeding 3 years. The revision of the
programme should take into account
information from the operator’s management
system including the results of the CRM
assessment.
(e) Command course — CRM training
The operator should ensure that elements of
CRM training are integrated into the command
course, as specified in Table 1 of (g).
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(f) Training elements
The CRM training elements to be covered are
specified in Table 1 of (g). The operator should
ensure that the following aspects are addressed:
(1) Automation and philosophy on the use of
automation
(i) The CRM training should include training in
the use and knowledge of automation,
and in the recognition of systems and human
limitations associated with the use of
automation. The operator should, therefore,
ensure that the flight crew member
receives training on:
(A) the application of the operations policy
concerning the use of automation as
stated in the operations manual; and
(B) system and human limitations associated
with the use of automation, giving
special attention to issues of mode awareness,
automation surprises and
over-reliance including false sense of security
and complacency.
(ii) The objective of this training should be to
provide appropriate knowledge, skills and
attitudes for managing and operating
automated systems. Special attention should
be given to how automation increases the need
for crews to have a common
understanding of the way in which the system
performs, and any features of
automation that make this understanding
difficult.
(iii) If conducted in an FSTD, the training
should include automation surprises of
different origin (system- and pilot-induced).
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(2) Monitoring and intervention
Flight crew should be trained in CRM-related
aspects of operation monitoring before,
during and after flight, together with any
associated priorities. This CRM training should
include guidance to the pilot monitoring on
when it would be appropriate to intervene, if
felt necessary, and how this should be done in
a timely manner. Reference should be
made to the operator procedures for structured
intervention as specified in the
operations manual.
(3) Resilience development
CRM training should address the main aspects
of resilience development. The training
should cover:
(i) Mental flexibility
Flight crew should be trained to:
(A) understand that mental flexibility is
necessary to recognise critical changes;
(B) reflect on their judgement and adjust it to
the unique situation;
(C) avoid fixed prejudices and over-reliance on
standard solutions; and
(D) remain open to changing assumptions and
perceptions.
(ii) Performance adaptation
Flight crew should be trained to:
(A) mitigate frozen behaviours, overreactions
and inappropriate hesitation; and
(B) adjust actions to current conditions.
(4) Surprise and startle effect
CRM training should address unexpected,
unusual and stressful situations. The training
should cover:
(i) surprises and startle effects; and
(ii) management of abnormal and emergency
situations, including:
(A) the development and maintenance of the
capacity to manage crew
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resources;
(B) the acquisition and maintenance of
adequate automatic behavioural
responses; and
(C) recognising the loss and re-building
situation awareness and control.
(5) Cultural differences
CRM training should cover cultural differences
of multinational and cross-cultural crews.
This includes recognising that:
(i) different cultures may have different
communication specifics, ways of
understanding and approaches to the same
situation or problem;
(ii) difficulties may arise when crew members
with different mother tongue
communicate in a common language which is
not their mother tongue; and
(iii) cultural differences may lead to different
methods for identifying a situation and
solving a problem.
(6) Operator’s safety culture and company
culture
CRM training should cover the operator’s
safety culture, its company culture, the type of
operations and the associated procedures of the
operator. This should include areas of
operations that may lead to particular
difficulties or involve unusual hazards.
(7) Case studies
(i) CRM training should cover aircraft type-
specific case studies, based on the
information available within the operator’s
management system, including:
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(A) accident and serious incident reviews to
analyse and identify any associated
non-technical causal and contributory factors,
and instances or examples of
lack of CRM; and
(B) analysis of occurrences that were well
managed.
(ii) If relevant aircraft type-specific or
operator-specific case studies are not available,
the operator should consider other case studies
relevant to the scale and scope of
its operations.
(g) CRM training syllabus
Table 1 below specifies which CRM training
elements should be covered in each type of
training.
The levels of training in Table 1 can be
described as follows:
(1) ‘Required’ means training that should be
instructional or interactive in style to meet the
objectives specified in the CRM training
programme or to refresh and strengthen
knowledge gained in a previous training.
(2) ‘In-depth’ means training that should be
instructional or interactive in style taking full
advantage of group discussions, team task
analysis, team task simulation, etc., for the
acquisition or consolidation of knowledge,
skills and attitudes. The CRM training
elements
should be tailored to the specific needs of the
training phase being undertaken.
Tabel 1: Flight crew CRM training
(h) Assessment of CRM skills
(1) Assessment of CRM skills is the process of
observing, recording, interpreting and
debriefing crews and crew member’s
performance using an accepted methodology in
the
context of the overall performance.
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(2) The flight crew member’s CRM skills
should be assessed in the operational
environment,
but not during CRM training in the non-
operational environment. Nevertheless, during
training in the non-operational environment,
feedback from the flight crew CRM trainer
or from trainees on individual and crew
performance may be given to the crew
members concerned.
(3) The assessment of CRM skills should:
(i) include debriefing the crew and the
individual crew member;
(ii) serve to identify additional training, where
needed, for the crew or the individual
crew member; and
(iii) be used to improve the CRM training
system by evaluating de-identified summaries
of all CRM assessments.
(4) Prior to the introduction of CRM skills
assessment, a detailed description of the CRM
methodology, including the required CRM
standards and the terminology used for the
assessment, should be published in the
operations manual.
(5) Methodology of CRM skills assessment
The assessment should be based on the
following principles:
(i) only observable behaviours are assessed;
(ii) the assessment should positively reflect any
CRM skills that result in enhanced
safety; and
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(iii) assessments should include behaviour that
results in an unacceptable reduction in
safety margin.
(6) Operators should establish procedures,
including additional training, to be applied in
the
event that flight crew members do not achieve
or maintain the required CRM standards.
AMC2 ORO.FC.115 Crew resource (a) For single-pilot helicopter operations with
management (CRM) training technical crew, AMC1 ORO.FC.115 should be
CRM TRAINING — SINGLE-PILOT applied.
OPERATIONS
(b) For single-pilot operations other than those
specified in (a), AMC1 ORO.FC.115 should be
applied with the following differences:
(1) Relevant training
Training should cover the relevant CRM
training, i.e. initial operator’s training, the
operator conversion course and recurrent
training.
(2) Relevant training elements
CRM training should focus on the elements
specified in Table 1 of (g) of AMC1
ORO.FC.115
which are relevant to single-pilot operations.
Therefore, single-pilot CRM training should
include, among others:
(i) situation awareness;
(ii) workload management;
(iii) decision-making;
(iv) resilience development;
(v) surprise and startle effect; and
(vi) effective communication and coordination
with other operational personnel and
ground services.
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(3) Computer-based training
Notwithstanding (a)(3) of AMC1
ORO.FC.115, computer-based training may be
conducted
as a stand-alone training method.
(4) Operation with ELA2 aircraft
Notwithstanding (1) and (2), for operations
with ELA2 aircraft the relevant CRM training
and its duration should be determined by the
operator, based on the aircraft type and the
complexity of the operation.
AMC3 ORO.FC.115 Crew resource (a) Applicability
management (CRM) training The provisions described herein:
FLIGHT CREW CRM TRAINER (1) should be fulfilled by flight crew CRM
trainers responsible for classroom CRM
training;
and
(2) are not applicable to:
(i) instructors, holding a certificate in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011, who conduct CRM training in
the operational environment; and
(ii) trainers or instructors conducting training
other than CRM training, but integrating
CRM elements into this training.
(b) Qualification of flight crew CRM trainer
(1) A training and standardisation programme
for flight crew CRM trainers should be
established.
(2) A flight crew CRM trainer, in order to be
suitably qualified, should:
(i) have adequate knowledge of the relevant
flight operations;
(ii) have adequate knowledge of human
performance and limitations (HPL), whilst:
(A) having obtained a commercial pilot licence
in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011; or
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(B) having followed a theoretical HPL course
covering the whole syllabus of the
HPL examination;
(iii) have completed flight crew initial
operator’s CRM training;
(iv) have received training in group facilitation
skills;
(v) have received additional training in the
fields of group management, group
dynamics and personal awareness; and
(vi) have demonstrated the knowledge, skills
and credibility required to train the CRM
training elements in the non-operational
environment, as specified in Table 1 of
AMC1 ORO.FC.115.
(3) The following qualifications and
experiences are also acceptable for a flight
crew CRM
trainer in order to be suitably qualified:
(i) A flight crew member holding a recent
qualification as a flight crew CRM trainer
may continue to be a flight crew CRM trainer
after the cessation of active flying
duties if he/she maintains adequate knowledge
of the relevant flight operations.
(ii) A former flight crew member may become
a flight crew CRM trainer if he/she
maintains adequate knowledge of the relevant
flight operations and fulfils the
provisions of (2)(ii) to (2)(vi).
(iii) An experienced CRM trainer may become
a flight crew CRM trainer if he/she
demonstrates adequate knowledge of the
relevant flight operations and fulfils the
provisions of (2)(ii) to (2)(vi).
(c) Training of flight crew CRM trainer
(1) Training of flight crew CRM trainers
should be both theoretical and practical.
Practical
elements should include the development of
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specific trainer skills, particularly the
integration of CRM into line operations.
(2) The basic training of flight crew CRM
trainers should include the training elements
for
flight crew, as specified in Table 1 of AMC1
ORO.FC.115. In addition, the basic training
should include the following:
(i) introduction to CRM training;
(ii) operator’s management system;
(iii) characteristics, as applicable:
(A) of the different types of CRM trainings
(initial, recurrent, etc.);
(B) of combined training; and
(C) related to the type of aircraft or operation;
and
(iv) assessment.
(3) The refresher training of flight crew CRM
trainers should include new methodologies,
procedures and lessons learned.
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(4) Instructors, holding a certificate in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011, who are also CRM trainers,
may combine the CRM trainer refresher
training with instructor refresher training.
(5) Instructors for other-than complex motor-
powered aircraft should be qualified as flight
crew CRM trainers for this aircraft category
with no additional training, as specified in (2)
and (3) when:
(i) holding a certificate in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011; and
(ii) fulfilling the provisions of (b)(2) or (b)(3).
(6) The training of flight crew CRM trainers
should be conducted by flight crew CRM
trainers with a minimum of 3 years’
experience. Assistance may be provided by
experts in order to address specific areas.
(d) Assessment of flight crew CRM trainer
(1) A flight crew CRM trainer should be
assessed by the operator when conducting the
first CRM training course. This first
assessment should be valid for a period of 3
years.
(2) The operator should ensure that the process
for the assessment is included in the
operations manual describing methods for
observing, recording, interpreting and
debriefing the flight crew CRM trainer. All
personnel involved in the assessment must be
credible and competent in their role.
(e) Recency and renewal of qualification as
flight crew CRM trainer
(1) For recency of the 3-year validity period,
the flight crew CRM trainer should:
(i) conduct at least 2 CRM training events in
any 12-month period;
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(ii) be assessed within the last 12 months of the
3-year validity period by the operator;
and
(iii) complete CRM trainer refresher training
within the 3-year validity period.
(2) The next 3-year validity period should start
at the end of the previous period.
(3) For renewal, i.e. when a flight crew CRM
trainer does not fulfil the provisions of (1),
he/she
should, before resuming as flight crew CRM
trainer:
(i) comply with the qualification provisions of
(b) and (d); and
(ii) complete CRM trainer refresher training.
ORO.FC.120 Operator conversion training (a) In the case of aeroplane or helicopter ---
operations, the flight crew member shall
complete the operator conversion training
course before commencing unsupervised line
flying:
(1) when changing to an aircraft for which a
new type or class rating is required;
(2) when joining an operator.
(b) The operator conversion training course
shall include training on the equipment
installed on the aircraft as relevant to flight
crew members’ roles.
ORO.FC.125 Differences training and (a) Flight crew members shall complete
familiarisation training differences or familiarisation training when
required by Annex I (Part-FCL) to Regulation
(EU) No 1178/2011 and when changing
equipment or procedures requiring additional
knowledge on types or variants currently
operated.
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(b) The operations manual shall specify when
such differences or familiarisation training is
required.
AMC1 ORO.FC.125 Differences training ---
and familiarisation training
GENERAL ---
(a) Differences training requires additional ---
knowledge and training on the aircraft or an
appropriate training device. It should be carried
out:
(1) when introducing a significant change of
equipment and/or procedures on types or
variants currently operated; and
(2) in the case of aeroplanes, when operating
another variant of an aeroplane of the same
type or another type of the same class currently
operated; or
(3) in the case of helicopters, when operating a
variant of a helicopter currently operated.
(b) Familiarisation training requires only the ---
acquisition of additional knowledge. It should
be carried out when:
(1) operating another helicopter or aeroplane of
the same type; or
(2) when introducing a significant change of
equipment and/or procedures on types or
variants currently operated.
ORO.FC.130 Recurrent training and (a) Each flight crew member shall complete
checking annual recurrent flight and ground training
relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on
which he/she operates, including training on
the location and use of all emergency and
safety equipment carried.
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(b) Each flight crew member shall be
periodically checked to demonstrate
competence in carrying out normal, abnormal
and emergency procedures.
ORO.FC.135 Pilot qualification to operate Flight crew members who may be assigned to
in either pilot’s seat operate in either pilot’s seat shall complete
appropriate training and checking as specified
in the operations manual.
ORO.FC.140 Operation on more than one (a) Flight crew members operating more than
type or variant one type or variant of aircraft shall comply
with the requirements prescribed in this
Subpart for each type or variant, unless credits
related to the training, checking, and recent
experience requirements are defined in the
mandatory part of the operational suitability
data established in accordance with Regulation
(EU) No 748/2012 for the relevant types or
variants.
(b) Appropriate procedures and/or operational
restrictions shall be specified in the operations
manual for any operation on more than one
type or variant.
ORO.FC.145 Provision of training (a) All the training required in this Subpart ---
shall be conducted:
(1) in accordance with the training programmes
and syllabi established by the operator in the
operations manual;
(2) by appropriately qualified personnel. In the
case of flight and flight simulation training and
checking, the personnel providing the training
and conducting the checks shall be qualified in
accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) to
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.
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(b) When establishing the training programmes
and syllabi, the operator shall include the
relevant elements defined in the mandatory
part of the operational suitability data
established in accordance with Regulation
(EU) No 748/2012.
(c) Training and checking programmes, YES
including syllabi and use of individual flight
simulation training devices (FSTDs), shall be
approved by the competent authority.
(d) The FSTD shall replicate the aircraft used
by the operator, as far as practicable.
Differences between the FSTD and the aircraft
shall be described and addressed through a
briefing or training, as appropriate.
(e) The operator shall establish a system to
adequately monitor changes to the FSTD and
to ensure that those changes do not affect the
adequacy of the training programmes.
AMC1 ORO.FC.145(b) Provision of training ---
NON-MANDATORY ---
(RECOMMENDATION) ELEMENTS OF
OPERATIONAL SUITABILITY DATA
When developing the training programmes and
syllabi, the operator should consider the non-
mandatory (recommendation) elements for the
relevant type that are provided in the
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 748/2012.
AMC1 ORO.FC.145(d) Provision of training ---
FULL FLIGHT SIMULATORS (FFS) ---
The operator should classify any differences ---
between the aircraft and FFS in accordance
with the Air Transport Association (ATA)
chapters as follows:
Compliance Levels ---
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(a) Level A differences: ---
(1) no influence on flight characteristics;
(2) no influence on procedures (normal and/or
abnormal);
(3) differences in presentation; and
(4) differences in operation.
Method: self-instruction via the operations ---
manual or flight crew information.
(b) Level B differences: ---
(1) no influence on flight characteristics;
(2) influence on procedures (normal and/or
abnormal); and
(3) possible differences in presentation and
operation.
Method: flight crew information, computer- ---
based training, system device training or
special instruction by instructor.
(c) Level C differences: ---
(1) influence on flight characteristics;
(2) influence on procedures (normal and/or
abnormal); and
(3) eventually differences in presentation and
operation.
Method: special instruction by instructor, a ---
selected partial training on another FSTD or
aircraft or a waiver because of previous
experience, special instruction or training
programme.
(d) Level D differences: ---
(1) influence on flight characteristics; and/or
(2) influence on procedures (normal and/or
abnormal); and/or
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(3) differences in presentation and/or
operation; and
(4) FSTD is level D qualified and is used for
zero flight-time training (ZFTT).
Method: a specified partial training on another ---
FSTD or aircraft or a waiver because of
previous experience, special instruction or
training programme.
ORO.FC.200 Composition of flight crew (a) There shall not be more than one
inexperienced flight crew member in any flight
crew.
(b) The commander may delegate the conduct
of the flight to another pilot suitably qualified
in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) to
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 provided that
the requirements of ORO.FC.105(b)(1), (b)(2)
and (c) are complied with.
(c) Specific requirements for aeroplane ---
operations under instrument flight rules (IFR)
or at night.
(1) The minimum flight crew shall be two
pilots for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a
maximum operational passenger seating
configuration (MOPSC) of more than nine and
all turbojet aeroplanes.
(2) Aeroplanes other than those covered by
(c)(1) shall be operated with a minimum crew
of two pilots, unless the requirements of
ORO.FC.202 are complied with, in which case
they may be operated by a single pilot.
(d) Specific requirements for helicopter ---
operations.
(1) For all operations of helicopters with an ---
MOPSC of more than 19 and for operations
under IFR of helicopters with an MOPSC of
more than 9:
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(i) the minimum flight crew shall be two pilots;
and
(ii) the commander shall be the holder of an
airline transport pilot licence (helicopter)
(ATPL(H)) with an instrument rating issued in
accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) to
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.
(2) Operations not covered by (d)(1) may be
operated by a single pilot under IFR or at night
provided that the requirements of ORO.FC.202
are complied with.
AMC1 ORO.FC.200(a) Composition of ---
flight crew
CREWING OF INEXPERIENCED FLIGHT ---
CREW MEMBERS
The operator should establish procedures in the ---
operations manual taking into account the
following elements:
Aeroplanes ---
(a) The operator should consider that a flight ---
crew member is inexperienced, following
completion of a type rating or command
course, and the associated line flying under
supervision, until he/she has achieved on the
type either:
(1) 100 flight hours and flown 10 sectors
within a consolidation period of 120
consecutive days; or
(2) 150 flight hours and flown 20 sectors (no
time limit).
(b) A lesser number of flight hours or sectors, ---
subject to any other conditions that the
competent authority may impose, may be
acceptable to the competent authority when
one of the following applies:
(1) a new operator is commencing operations;
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(2) an operator introduces a new aeroplane
type;
(3) flight crew members have previously
completed a type conversion course with the
same operator;
(4) credits are defined in the operational
suitability data established in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.; or
(5) the aeroplane has a maximum take-off mass
of less than 10 tonnes or a maximum
operational passenger seating configuration
(MOPSC) of less than 20.
Helicopters ---
(c) The operator should consider that, when ---
two flight crew members are required, a flight
crew member, following completion of a type
rating or command course, and the associated
line flying under supervision, is inexperienced
until either:
(1) he/she has achieved 50 flight hours on the
type and/or in the role within a period of 60
days; or
(2) he/she has achieved 100 flight hours on the
type and/or in the role (no time limit).
(d) A lesser number of flight hours, on the type ---
and/or in the role, and subject to any other
conditions which the competent authority may
impose, may be acceptable to the competent
authority when one of the following applies:
(1) a new operator is commencing operations;
(2) an operator introduces a new helicopter
type;
(3) flight crew members have previously
completed a type conversion course with the
same operator (reconversion); or
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(4) credits are defined in operational suitability
data established in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.
ORO.FC.A.201 In-flight relief of flight crew (a) The commander may delegate the conduct ---
members of the flight to:
(1) another qualified commander; or
(2) for operations only above flight level (FL) ---
200, a pilot who complies with the following
minimum qualifications:
(i) ATPL;
(ii) conversion training and checking, including
type rating training, in accordance with
ORO.FC.220;
(iii) all recurrent training and checking in
accordance with ORO.FC.230 and
ORO.FC.240;
(iv) route/area and aerodrome competence in
accordance with ORO.FC.105.
(b) The co-pilot may be relieved by: ---
(1) another suitably qualified pilot;
(2) for operations only above FL 200, a cruise ---
relief co-pilot that complies with the following
minimum qualifications:
(i) valid commercial pilot licence (CPL) with
an instrument rating;
(ii) conversion training and checking, including
type rating training, in accordance with
ORO.FC.220 except the requirement for take-
off and landing training;
(iii) recurrent training and checking in
accordance with ORO.FC.230 except the
requirement for take-off and landing training.
(c) A flight engineer may be relieved in flight
by a crew member suitably qualified in
accordance with applicable national rules.
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ORO.FC.202 Single-pilot operations under In order to be able to fly under IFR or at night ---
IFR or at night with a minimum flight crew of one pilot, as
foreseen in ORO.FC.200(c)(2) and (d)(2), the
following shall be complied with:
(a) The operator shall include in the operations ---
manual a pilot’s conversion and recurrent
training programme that includes the additional
requirements for a single-pilot operation. The
pilot shall have undertaken training on the
operator’s procedures, in particular regarding:
(1) engine management and emergency
handling;
(2) use of normal, abnormal and emergency
checklist;
(3) air traffic control (ATC) communication;
(4) departure and approach procedures;
(5) autopilot management, if applicable;
(6) use of simplified in-flight documentation;
(7) single-pilot crew resource management.
(b) The recurrent checks required by
ORO.FC.230 shall be performed in the single-
pilot role on the relevant type or class of
aircraft in an environment representative of the
operation.
(c) For aeroplane operations under IFR the ---
pilot shall have:
(1) a minimum of 50 hours flight time under
IFR on the relevant type or class of aeroplane,
of which 10 hours are as commander; and
(2) completed during the preceding 90 days on ---
the relevant type or class of aeroplane:
(i) five IFR flights, including three instrument
approaches, in a single-pilot role; or
(ii) an IFR instrument approach check.
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(d) For aeroplane operations at night the pilot ---
shall have:
(1) a minimum of 15 hours flight time at night
which may be included in the 50 hours flight
time under IFR in (c)(1); and
(2) completed during the preceding 90 days on ---
the relevant type or class of aeroplane:
(i) three take-offs and landings at night in the
single pilot role; or
(ii) a night take-off and landing check.
(e) For helicopter operations under IFR the ---
pilot shall have:
(1) 25 hours total IFR flight experience in the
relevant operating environment; and
(2) 25 hours flight experience as a single pilot
on the specific type of helicopter, approved for
single-pilot IFR, of which 10 hours may be
flown under supervision, including five sectors
of IFR line flying under supervision using the
single-pilot procedures; and
(3) completed during the preceding 90 days: ---
(i) five IFR flights as a single pilot, including
three instrument approaches, carried out on a
helicopter approved for this purpose; or
(ii) an IFR instrument approach check as a
single pilot on the relevant type of helicopter,
flight training device (FTD) or full flight
simulator (FFS).
ORO.FC.205 Command course (a) For aeroplane and helicopter operations, the ---
command course shall include at least the
following elements:
(1) training in an FSTD, which includes line
oriented flight training (LOFT) and/or flight
training;
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(2) the operator proficiency check, operating as
commander;
(3) command responsibilities training;
(4) line training as commander under ---
supervision, for a minimum of:
(i) 10 flight sectors, in the case of aeroplanes;
and
(ii) 10 hours, including at least 10 flight
sectors, in the case of helicopters;
(5) completion of a line check as commander
and demonstration of adequate knowledge of
the route or area to be flown and of the
aerodromes, including alternate aerodromes,
facilities and procedures to be used; and
(6) crew resource management training.
AMC1 ORO.FC.205 Command course ---
COMBINED UPGRADING AND ---
CONVERSION COURSE – HELICOPTER
If a pilot is converting from one helicopter type ---
or variant to another when upgrading to
commander:
(a) the command course should also include a
conversion course in accordance with
ORO.FC.220; and
(b) additional flight sectors should be required
for a pilot transitioning onto a new type of
helicopter.
ORO.FC.215 Initial operator’s crew (a) The flight crew member shall have
resource management (CRM) training completed an initial CRM training course
before commencing unsupervised line flying.
- GM1 ORO.FC.115&.215
(b) Initial CRM training shall be conducted by
at least one suitably qualified CRM trainer who
may be assisted by experts in order to address
specific areas.
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(c) If the flight crew member has not
previously received theoretical training in
human factors to the ATPL level, he/she shall
complete, before or combined with the initial
CRM training, a theoretical course provided by
the operator and based on the human
performance and limitations syllabus for the
ATPL as established in Annex I (Part-FCL) to
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.
AMC1 ORO.FC.215 Initial operator’s Initial operator’s CRM training should: ---
crew resource management (CRM) (a) cover the applicable provisions of AMC1
training ORO.FC.115, including the training elements as
TRAINING ELEMENTS AND TRAINER specified in Table 1 thereof; and
QUALIFICATION
(b) be conducted by a flight crew CRM trainer ---
who is qualified as specified in AMC3
ORO.FC.115.
ORO.FC.220 Operator conversion (a) CRM training shall be integrated into the
training and checking operator conversion training course.
GM1 ORO.FC.220(c)
GM1 ORO.FC.220&230
GM2 ORO.FC.220&230
GM3 ORO.FC.220&230
GM4 ORO.FC.220&230
GM5 ORO.FC.220&230
GM1 ORO.FC.220(b)
GM1 ORO.FC.220(d)
(b) Once an operator conversion course has
been commenced, the flight crew member shall
not be assigned to flying duties on another type
or class of aircraft until the course is completed
or terminated. Crew members operating only
performance class B aeroplanes may be
assigned to flights on other types of
performance class B aeroplanes during
conversion courses to the extent necessary to
maintain the operation.
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(c) The amount of training required by the
flight crew member for the operator’s
conversion course shall be determined in
accordance with the standards of qualification
and experience specified in the operations
manual, taking into account his/her previous
training and experience.
(d) The flight crew member shall complete: ---
(1) the operator proficiency check and the
emergency and safety equipment training and
checking before commencing line flying under
supervision (LIFUS); and
(2) the line check upon completion of line
flying under supervision. For performance
class B aeroplanes, LIFUS may be performed
on any aeroplane within the applicable class.
(e) In the case of aeroplanes, pilots that have ---
been issued a type rating based on a zero flight-
time training (“ZFTT”) course shall:
(1) commence line flying under supervision not
later than 21 days after the completion of the
skill test or after appropriate training provided
by the operator. The content of that training
shall be described in the operations manual;
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2) complete six take-offs and landings in an
FSTD not later than 21 days after the
completion of the skill test under the
supervision of a type rating instructor for
aeroplanes (“TRI(A)”) occupying the other
pilot seat. The number of take-offs and
landings may be reduced when credits are
defined in the mandatory part of the
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Regulation (EU) No
748/2012. If those take-offs and landings have
not been performed within 21 days, the
operator shall provide refresher training the
content of which shall be described in the
operations manual;
(3) conduct the first four take-offs and landings
of the LIFUS in the aeroplane under the
supervision of a TRI(A) occupying the other
pilot seat. The number of take-offs and
landings may be reduced when credits are
defined in the mandatory part of the
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Regulation (EU) No
748/2012.
AMC1 ORO.FC.220 Operator conversion ---
training and checking
OPERATOR CONVERSION TRAINING ---
SYLLABUS
(a) General ---
(1) The operator conversion training should ---
include, in the following order:
(i) ground training and checking, including
aircraft systems, and normal, abnormal and
emergency procedures;
(ii) emergency and safety equipment training
and checking, (completed before any flight
training in an aircraft commences);
(iii) flight training and checking (aircraft
and/or FSTD); and
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(iv) line flying under supervision and line
check.
(2) When the flight crew member has not
previously completed an operator’s conversion
course, he/she should undergo general first-aid
training and, if applicable, ditching procedures
training using the equipment in water.
(3) Where the emergency drills require action
by the non-handling pilot, the check should
additionally cover knowledge of these drills.
(4) The operator’s conversion may be
combined with a new type/class rating training
as required by Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.
(5) The operator should ensure that:
(i) applicable elements of CRM training, as
specified in Table 1 of AMC1 ORO.FC.115,
are integrated into all appropriate phases of the
conversion training; and
(ii) the personnel integrating elements of CRM
into conversion training are suitably
qualified, as specified in AMC3 ORO.FC.115.
(b) Ground training ---
(1) Ground training should comprise a properly
organised programme of ground instruction
supervised by training staff with adequate
facilities, including any necessary audio,
mechanical and visual aids. Self-study using
appropriate electronic learning aids, computer-
based training (CBT) etc. may be used with
adequate supervision of the standards achieved.
However, if the aircraft concerned is relatively
simple, unsupervised private study may be
adequate if the operator provides suitable
manuals and/or study notes.
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(2) The course of ground instruction should
incorporate formal tests on such matters as
aircraft systems, performance and flight
planning, where applicable.
(c) Emergency and safety equipment training ---
and checking
(1) Emergency and safety equipment training
should take place in conjunction with
cabin/technical crew undergoing similar
training with emphasis on coordinated
procedures and two-way communication
between the flight crew compartment and the
cabin.
(2) On the initial conversion course and on ---
subsequent conversion courses as applicable,
the following should be addressed:
(i) Instruction on first-aid in general (initial
conversion course only); instruction on first-aid
as relevant to the aircraft type of operation and
crew complement including those situations
where no cabin crew is required to be carried
(initial and subsequent).
(ii) Aero-medical topics including: ---
(A) hypoxia;
(B) hyperventilation;
(C) contamination of the skin/eyes by aviation
fuel or hydraulic or other fluids;
(D) hygiene and food poisoning; and
(E) malaria.
(iii) The effect of smoke in an enclosed area
and actual use of all relevant equipment in a
simulated smoke-filled environment.
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(iv) Actual fire fighting, using equipment
representative of that carried in the aircraft on
an actual or simulated fire except that, with
Halon extinguishers, an alternative
extinguisher may be used.
(v) The operational procedures of security,
rescue and emergency services.
(vi) Survival information appropriate to their
areas of operation (e.g. polar, desert, jungle or
sea) and training in the use of any survival
equipment required to be carried.
(vii) A comprehensive drill to cover all
ditching procedures where flotation equipment
is carried. This should include practice of the
actual donning and inflation of a life-jacket,
together with a demonstration or audio-visual
presentation of the inflation of life-rafts and/or
slide-rafts and associated equipment. This
practice should, on an initial conversion
course, be conducted using the equipment in
water, although previous certified training with
another operator or the use of similar
equipment will be accepted in lieu of further
wet-drill training.
(viii) Instruction on the location of emergency
and safety equipment, correct use of all
appropriate drills, and procedures that could be
required of flight crew in different emergency
situations. Evacuation of the aircraft (or a
representative training device) by use of a slide
where fitted should be included when the
operations manual procedure requires the early
evacuation of flight crew to assist on the
ground.
(d) Flight training ---
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(1) Flight training should be conducted to
familiarise the flight crew member thoroughly
with all aspects of limitations and normal,
abnormal and emergency procedures
associated with the aircraft and should be
carried out by suitably qualified class and type
rating instructors and/or examiners. For
specific operations such as steep approaches,
ETOPS, or operations based on QFE,
additional training should be carried out, based
on any additional elements of training defined
for the aircraft type in the operational
suitability data in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, where they
exist.
(2) In planning flight training on aircraft with a
flight crew of two or more, particular emphasis
should be placed on the practice of LOFT with
emphasis on CRM, and the use of crew
coordination procedures, including coping with
incapacitation.
(3) Normally, the same training and practice in
the flying of the aircraft should be given to co-
pilots as well as commanders. The ‘flight
handling’ sections of the syllabus for
commanders and co-pilots alike should include
all the requirements of the operator proficiency
check required by ORO.FC.230.
(4) Unless the type rating training programme
has been carried out in an FSTD usable for
ZFTT, the training should include at least three
take-offs and landings in the aircraft.
(e) Line flying under supervision (LIFUS)
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(1) Following completion of flight training and
checking as part of the operator’s conversion
course, each flight crew member should
operate a minimum number of sectors and/or
flight hours under the supervision of a flight
crew member nominated by the operator.
(2) The minimum flight sectors/hours should ---
be specified in the operations manual and
should be determined by the following:
(i) previous experience of the flight crew
member;
(ii) complexity of the aircraft; and
(iii) the type and area of operation.
(3) For performance class B aeroplanes, the
amount of LIFUS required is dependent on the
complexity of the operations to be performed.
(f) Passenger handling for operations where no ---
cabin crew is required
Other than general training on dealing with ---
people, emphasis should be placed on the
following:
(1) advice on the recognition and management
of passengers who appear or are intoxicated
with alcohol, under the influence of drugs or
aggressive;
(2) methods used to motivate passengers and
the crowd control necessary to expedite an
aircraft evacuation; and
(3) the importance of correct seat allocation
with reference to aircraft mass and balance.
Particular emphasis should also be given on the
seating of special categories of passengers.
(g) Discipline and responsibilities, for ---
operations where no cabin crew is required
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Emphasis should be placed on discipline and ---
an individual's responsibilities in relation to:
(1) his/her ongoing competence and fitness to
operate as a crew member with special regard
to flight and duty time limitation (FTL)
requirements; and
(2) security procedures.
(h) Passenger briefing/safety demonstrations,
for operations where no cabin crew is required
Training should be given in the preparation of
passengers for normal and emergency
situations.
AMC1 ORO.FC.220&230 Operator (a) Upset prevention training should:
conversion training and checking & (1) consist of ground training and flight
recurrent training and training in an FSTD or an aeroplane;
checking
UPSET PREVENTION AND RECOVERY
TRAINING (UPRT) FOR COMPLEX
MOTOR-POWERED AEROPLANES WITH
A MAXIMUM OPERATIONAL
PASSENGER SEATING CONFIGURATION
(MOPSC) OF MORE THAN
19
(2) include upset prevention elements from
Table 1 for the conversion training course; and
(3) include upset prevention elements in Table
1 for the recurrent training programme at least
every 12 calendar months, such that all the
elements are covered over a period not
exceeding 3 years.
Table 1: Elements and respective components
of upset prevention training
(b) Upset recovery training should:
(1) consist of ground training and flight
training in an FFS qualified for the training
task;
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(2) be completed from each seat in which a
pilot’s duties require him/her to operate; and
(3) include the recovery exercises in Table 2
for the recurrent training programme, such that
all the exercises are covered over a period not
exceeding 3 years.
Table 2: Exercises for upset recovery training
(c) The operator should ensure that personnel
providing FSTD UPRT are competent and
current to deliver the training, and understand
the capabilities and limitations of the device
used.
(d) The FFS qualification requirements in
(b)(1) are further clarified in the Guidance
Material (GM).
AMC2 ORO.FC.220 Operator conversion ---
training and checking
OPERATOR CONVERSION TRAINING ---
SYLLABUS – FLIGHT ENGINEERS
(a) Operator conversion training for flight
engineers should approximate to that of pilots.
(b) If the flight crew includes a pilot with the
duties of a flight engineer, he/she should, after
training and the initial check in these duties,
operate a minimum number of flight sectors
under the supervision of a nominated
additional flight crew member. The minimum
figures should be specified in the operations
manual and should be selected after due note
has been taken of the complexity of the aircraft
and the experience of the flight crew member.
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AMC2 ORO.FC.220&230 Operator (a) Upset prevention training should:
conversion training and checking & (1) consist of ground training and flight
recurrent training and checking training in an FSTD or an aeroplane;
UPSET PREVENTION AND RECOVERY
TRAINING (UPRT) FOR COMPLEX
MOTOR-POWERED AEROPLANES
WITH A MAXIMUM OPERATIONAL
PASSENGER SEATING CONFIGURATION
(MOPSC) OF 19 OR LESS
(2) include upset prevention elements in Table
1 of AMC1 ORO.FC.220&230 for the
conversion training course; and
(3) include upset prevention elements in Table
1 of AMC1 ORO.FC.220&230 for the
recurrent
training programme at least every 12 calendar
months, such that all the elements are
covered over a period not exceeding 3 years.
(b) Upset recovery training should:
(1) consist of ground training and flight
training in an FFS qualified for the training
task, if available;
(2) be completed from each seat in which a
pilot’s duties require him/her to operate; and
(3) include the recovery exercises in Table 2 of
AMC1 ORO.FC.220&230 for the recurrent
training programme, such that all the exercises
are covered over a period not exceeding 3
years.
(c) The operator should ensure that personnel
providing FSTD UPRT are competent and
current to deliver the training, and understand
the capabilities and limitations of the device
used.
(d) The FFS qualification requirements in
(b)(1) are further specified in the Guidance
Material (GM).
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ORO.FC.230 Recurrent training and (a) Each flight crew member shall complete
checking recurrent training and checking relevant to the
type or variant of aircraft on which they
- GM1 ORO.FC.230 operate.
-GM1 ORO.FC.230(a);(b);(f)
(b) Operator proficiency check ---
(1) Each flight crew member shall complete
operator proficiency checks as part of the
normal crew complement to demonstrate
competence in carrying out normal, abnormal
and emergency procedures.
(2) When the flight crew member will be
required to operate under IFR, the operator
proficiency check shall be conducted without
external visual reference, as appropriate.
(3) The validity period of the operator
proficiency check shall be six calendar months.
For operations under VFR by day of
performance class B aeroplanes conducted
during seasons not longer than eight
consecutive months, one operator proficiency
check shall be sufficient. The proficiency
check shall be undertaken before commencing
commercial air transport operations.
(4) The flight crew member involved in
operations by day and over routes navigated by
reference to visual landmarks with an other-
than-complex motor-powered helicopter may
complete the operator proficiency check in
only one of the relevant types held. The
operator proficiency check shall be performed
each time on the type least recently used for the
proficiency check. The relevant helicopter
types that may be grouped for the purpose of
the operator proficiency check shall be
contained in the operations manual.
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(5) Notwithstanding ORO.FC.145(a)(2), for
operations of other-than-complex motor-
powered helicopters by day and over routes
navigated by reference to visual landmarks and
performance class B aeroplanes, the check may
be conducted by a suitably qualified
commander nominated by the operator, trained
in CRM concepts and the assessment of CRM
skills. The operator shall inform the competent
authority about the persons nominated.
(c) Line check ---
(1) Each flight crew member shall complete a
line check on the aircraft to demonstrate
competence in carrying out normal line
operations described in the operations manual.
The validity period of the line check shall be
12 calendar months.
(2) Notwithstanding ORO.FC.145(a)(2), line
checks may be conducted by a suitably
qualified commander nominated by the
operator, trained in CRM concepts and the
assessment of CRM skills.
(d) Emergency and safety equipment training ---
and checking
Each flight crew member shall complete
training and checking on the location and use
of all emergency and safety equipment carried.
The validity period of an emergency and safety
equipment check shall be 12 calendar months.
(e) CRM training ---
(1) Elements of CRM shall be integrated into
all appropriate phases of the recurrent training.
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(2) Each flight crew member shall undergo
specific modular CRM training. All major
topics of CRM training shall be covered by
distributing modular training sessions as evenly
as possible over each three-year period.
(f) Each flight crew member shall undergo
ground training and flight training in an FSTD
or an aircraft, or a combination of FSTD and
aircraft training, at least every 12 calendar
months.
(g) The validity periods mentioned in (b)(3),
(c) and (d) shall be counted from the end of the
month when the check was taken.
(h) When the training or checks required above
are undertaken within the last three months of
the validity period, the new validity period
shall be counted from the original expiry date.
AMC1 ORO.FC.230 Recurrent training and ---
checking
RECURRENT TRAINING SYLLABUS ---
(a) Recurrent training ---
Recurrent training should comprise the ---
following:
(1) Ground training ---
(i) The ground training programme should ---
include:
(A) aircraft systems;
(B) operational procedures and requirements
including ground de-icing/anti-icing and pilot
incapacitation; and
(C) accident/incident and occurrence review.
(ii) Knowledge of the ground training should
be verified by a questionnaire or other suitable
methods.
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(iii) When the ground training is conducted
within 3 calendar months prior to the expiry of
the 12 calendar months period, the next ground
and refresher training should be completed
within 12 calendar months of the original
expiry date of the previous training.
(2) Emergency and safety equipment training ---
(i) Emergency and safety equipment training
may be combined with emergency and safety
equipment checking and should be conducted
in an aircraft or a suitable alternative training
device.
(ii) Every year the emergency and safety ---
equipment training programme should include
the following:
(A) actual donning of a life-jacket, where
fitted;
(B) actual donning of protective breathing
equipment, where fitted;
(C) actual handling of fire extinguishers of the
type used;
(D) instruction on the location and use of all
emergency and safety equipment carried on the
aircraft;
(E) instruction on the location and use of all
types of exits;
(F) security procedures.
(iii) Every 3 years the programme of training ---
should include the following:
(A) actual operation of all types of exits;
(B) demonstration of the method used to
operate a slide where fitted;
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(C) actual fire-fighting using equipment
representative of that carried in the aircraft on
an actual or simulated fire except that, with
Halon extinguishers, an alternative
extinguisher may be used;
(D) the effects of smoke in an enclosed area
and actual use of all relevant equipment in a
simulated smoke-filled environment;
(E) actual handling of pyrotechnics, real or
simulated, where applicable;
(F) demonstration in the use of the life-rafts
where fitted. In the case of helicopters involved
in extended over water operations,
demonstration and use of the life-rafts.
Helicopter water survival training ---
Where life-rafts are fitted for helicopter
extended overwater operations (such as sea
pilot transfer, offshore operations, regular, or
scheduled, coast-to-coast overwater
operations), a comprehensive wet drill to cover
all ditching procedures should be practised by
aircraft crew. This wet drill should include, as
appropriate, practice of the actual donning and
inflation of a life-jacket, together with a
demonstration or audio-visual presentation of
the inflation of life- rafts. Crews should board
the same (or similar) life-rafts from the water
whilst wearing a life-jacket. Training should
include the use of all survival equipment
carried on board life-rafts and any additional
survival equipment carried separately on board
the aircraft;
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- consideration should be given to the provision
of further specialist training such as underwater
escape training. Where operations are
predominately conducted offshore, operators
should conduct 3-yearly helicopter underwater
escape training at an approp
- wet practice drill should always be given in
initial training unless the crew member
concerned has received similar training
provided by another operator;
(G) particularly in the case where no cabin
crew is required, first-aid, appropriate to the
aircraft type, the kind of operation and crew
complement.
(iv) The successful resolution of aircraft
emergencies requires interaction between flight
crew and cabin/technical crew and emphasis
should be placed on the importance of effective
coordination and two-way communication
between all crew members in various
emergency situations.
(v) Emergency and safety equipment training
should include joint practice in aircraft
evacuations so that all who are involved are
aware of the duties other crew members should
perform. When such practice is not possible,
combined flight crew and cabin/technical crew
training should include joint discussion of
emergency scenarios.
(vi) Emergency and safety equipment training
should, as far as practicable, take place in
conjunction with cabin/technical crew
undergoing similar training with emphasis on
coordinated procedures and two-way
communication between the flight crew
compartment and the cabin.
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(3) CRM ---
Elements of CRM training, as specified in Table
1 of AMC1 ORO.FC.115, should be integrated
into all appropriate phases of recurrent training.
(4) Aircraft/FSTD training ---
(i) General ---
(A) The aircraft/FSTD training programme
should be established in a way that all major
failures of aircraft systems and associated
procedures will have been covered in the
preceding 3 year period.
(B) When engine-out manoeuvres are carried
out in an aircraft, the engine failure should be
simulated.
(C) Aircraft/FSTD training may be combined
with the operator proficiency check.
(D) When the aircraft/FSTD training is
conducted within 3 calendar months prior to
the expiry of the 12 calendar months period,
the next aircraft/FSTD training should be
completed within 12 calendar months of the
original expiry date of the previous training.
(ii) Helicopters ---
(A) Where a suitable FSTD is available it
should be used for the aircraft/FSTD training
programme. If the operator is able to
demonstrate, on the basis of a compliance and
risk assessment, that using an aircraft for this
training provides equivalent standards of
training with safety levels similar to those
achieved using an FSTD, the aircraft may be
used for this training to the extent necessary.
(B) The recurrent training should include the ---
following additional items, which should be
completed in an FSTD:
- settling with power and vortex ring;
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- loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
(5) For operations with other-than-complex
motor-powered aeroplanes, all training and
checking should be relevant to the type of
operation and class of aeroplane on which the
flight crew member operates with due account
taken of any specialised equipment used.
(b) Recurrent checking ---
Recurrent checking should comprise the ---
following:
(1) Operator proficiency checks ---
(i) Aeroplanes ---
Where applicable, operator proficiency checks
should include the following manoeuvres as
pilot flying:
(A) rejected take-off when an FSTD is
available to represent that specific aeroplane,
otherwise touch drills only;
(B) take-off with engine failure between V1
and V2 (take-off safety speed) or, if carried out
in an aeroplane, at a safe speed above V2;
(C) 3D approach operation to minima with, in
the case of multi-engine aeroplanes, one-
engine-inoperative;
(D) 2D approach operation to minima;
(E) at least one of the 3D or 2D approach
operations should be an RNP APCH or RNP
AR APCH operation;
(F) missed approach on instruments from
minima with, in the case of multiengined
aeroplanes, one-engine-inoperative;
(G) landing with one-engine-inoperative. For
single-engine aeroplanes a practice forced
landing is required.
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(ii) Helicopters ---
(A) Where applicable, operator proficiency ---
checks should include the following
abnormal/emergency procedures:
- engine fire;
- fuselage fire;
- emergency operation of under carriage;
- fuel dumping;
- engine failure and relight;
- hydraulic failure;
- electrical failure;
- engine failure during take-off before decision
point;
- engine failure during take-off after decision
point;
- engine failure during landing before decision
point;
- engine failure during landing after decision
point;
- flight and engine control system
malfunctions;
- recovery from unusual attitudes;
- landing with one or more engine(s)
inoperative;
- instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)
autorotation techniques;
- autorotation to a designated area;
- pilot incapacitation;
- directional control failures and malfunctions.
(B) For pilots required to engage in IFR ---
operations, proficiency checks include the
following additional abnormal/emergency
procedures:
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- 3D approach operation to minima;
- go-around on instruments from minima with,
in the case of multi-engined helicopters, a
simulated failure of one engine;
- 2D approach operation to minima;
- at least one of the 3D or 2D approach
operations should be an RNP APCH or RNP
AR APCH operation;
- in the case of multi-engined helicopters, a
simulated failure of one engine to be included
in either the 3D or 2D approach operation to
minima;
- landing with a simulated failure of one or
more engines;
- where appropriate to the helicopter type,
approach with flight control system/flight
director system malfunctions, flight instrument
and navigation equipment failures.
(C) Before a flight crew member without a
valid instrument rating is allowed to operate in
VMC at night, he/she should be required to
undergo a proficiency check at night.
Thereafter, each second proficiency check
should be conducted at night.
(iii) Once every 12 months the checks
prescribed in (b)(1)(ii)(A) may be combined
with the proficiency check for revalidation or
renewal of the aircraft type rating.
(iv) Operator proficiency checks should be
conducted by a type rating examiner (TRE) or
a synthetic flight examiner (SFE), as
applicable.
(2) Emergency and safety equipment checks.
The items to be checked should be those for
which training has been carried out in
accordance with (a)(2).
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(3) Line checks ---
(i) Line checks should establish the ability to
perform satisfactorily a complete line operation
including pre-flight and post-flight procedures
and use of the equipment provided, as specified
in the operations manual. The route chosen
should be such as to give adequate
representation of the scope of a pilot’s normal
operations. When weather conditions preclude
a manual landing, an automatic landing is
acceptable. The commander, or any pilot who
may be required to relieve the commander,
should also demonstrate his/her ability to
‘manage’ the operation and take appropriate
command decisions.
(ii) The flight crew should be assessed on their ---
CRM skills in accordance with the
methodology described in AMC1 ORO.FC.115
and as specified in the operations
manual.
(iii) CRM assessment alone should not be used
as a reason for a failure of the line check,
unless the observed behaviour could lead to an
unacceptable reduction in safety margin.
(iv) When pilots are assigned duties as pilot
flying and pilot monitoring they should be
checked in both functions.
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(v) Line checks should be conducted by a
commander nominated by the operator. The
operator should inform the competent authority
about the persons nominated. The person
conducting the line check, should occupy an
observer’s seat where installed. His/her CRM
assessments should solely be based on
observations made during the initial briefing,
cabin briefing, flight crew compartment
briefing and those phases where he/she
occupies the observer’s seat.
(A) For aeroplanes, in the case of long haul
operations where additional operating flight
crew are carried, the person may fulfil the
function of a cruise relief pilot and should not
occupy either pilot’s seat during take-off,
departure, initial cruise, descent, approach and
landing.
(vi) Where a pilot is required to operate as pilot
flying and pilot monitoring, he/she should be
checked on one flight sector as pilot flying and
on another flight sector as pilot monitoring.
However, where the operator’s procedures
require integrated flight preparation, integrated
cockpit initialisation and that each pilot
performs both flying and monitoring duties on
the same sector, then the line check may be
performed on a single flight sector.
(4) When the operator proficiency check, line
check or emergency and safety equipment
check are undertaken within the final 3
calendar months of validity of a previous
check, the period of validity of the subsequent
check should be counted from the expiry date
of the previous check.
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(5) In the case of single-pilot operations with
helicopters, the recurrent checks referred to in
(b)(1), (2) and (3) should be performed in the
single-pilot role on a particular helicopter type
in an environment representative of the
operation.
(c) Flight crew incapacitation training, except ---
single-pilot operations
(1) Procedures should be established to train
flight crew to recognise and handle flight crew
incapacitation. This training should be
conducted every year and can form part of
other recurrent training. It should take the form
of classroom instruction, discussion, audio-
visual presentation or other similar means.
(2) If an FSTD is available for the type of
aircraft operated, practical training on flight
crew incapacitation should be carried out at
intervals not exceeding 3 years.
(d) Personnel providing training and checking ---
Training and checking should be provided by ---
the following personnel:
(1) ground and refresher training by suitably
qualified personnel;
(2) flight training by a flight instructor (FI),
type rating instructor (TRI) or class rating
instructor (CRI) or, in the case of the FSTD
content, a synthetic flight instructor (SFI),
providing that the FI, TRI, CRI or SFI satisfies
the operator's experience and knowledge
requirements sufficient to instruct on the items
specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i)(A) and (B);
(3) emergency and safety equipment training
by suitably qualified personnel;
(4) CRM: ---
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(i) integration of CRM elements into all the
phases of the recurrent training by all the
personnel conducting recurrent training. The
operator should ensure that all personnel
conducting recurrent training are suitably
qualified to integrate elements of CRM into
this training;
(ii) classroom CRM training by at least one CRM
trainer, qualified as specified in AMC3
ORO.FC.115 who may be assisted by experts
in order to address specific areas.
(5) recurrent checking by the following ---
personnel:
(i) operator proficiency check by a type rating
examiner (TRE), class rating examiner (CRE)
or, if the check is conducted in a FSTD, a TRE,
CRE or a synthetic flight examiner (SFE),
trained in CRM concepts and the assessment of
CRM skills.
(ii) emergency and safety equipment checking
by suitably qualified personnel.
(e) Use of FSTD ---
(1) Training and checking provide an
opportunity to practice abnormal/emergency
procedures that rarely arise in normal
operations and should be part of a structured
programme of recurrent training. This should
be carried out in an FSTD whenever possible.
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(2) The line check should be performed in the
aircraft. All other training and checking should
be performed in an FSTD, or, if it is not
reasonably practicable to gain access to such
devices, in an aircraft of the same type or in the
case of emergency and safety equipment
training, in a representative training device.
The type of equipment used for training and
checking should be representative of the
instrumentation, equipment and layout of the
aircraft type operated by the flight crew
member.
(3) Because of the unacceptable risk when
simulating emergencies such as engine failure,
icing problems, certain types of engine(s) (e.g.
during continued take-off or go-around, total
hydraulic failure), or because of environmental
considerations associated with some
emergencies (e.g. fuel dumping) these
emergencies should preferably be covered in
an FSTD. If no FSTD is available these
emergencies may be covered in the aircraft
using a safe airborne simulation, bearing in
mind the effect of any subsequent failure, and
the exercise must be preceded by a
comprehensive briefing.
AMC2 ORO.FC.230 Recurrent training and ---
checking
FLIGHT ENGINEERS ---
(a) The recurrent training and checking for
flight engineers should meet the requirements
for pilots and any additional specific duties,
omitting those items that do not apply to flight
engineers.
(b) Recurrent training and checking for flight
engineers should, whenever possible, take
place concurrently with a pilot undergoing
recurrent training and checking.
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(c) The line check should be conducted by a
commander or by a flight engineer nominated
by the operator, in accordance with national
rules, if applicable.
ORO.FC.235 Pilot qualification to operate (a) Commanders whose duties require them to
in either pilot’s seat operate in either pilot seat and carry out the
duties of a co-pilot, or commanders required to
- GM1 ORO.FC.235(f);(g) conduct training or checking duties, shall
complete additional training and checking as
specified in the operations manual. The check
may be conducted together with the operator
proficiency check prescribed in
ORO.FC.230(b).
(b) The additional training and checking shall ---
include at least the following:
(1) an engine failure during take-off;
(2) a one-engine-inoperative approach and go-
around; and
(3) a one-engine-inoperative landing.
(c) In the case of helicopters, commanders
shall also complete their proficiency checks
from left- and right-hand seats, on alternate
proficiency checks, provided that when the
type rating proficiency check is combined with
the operator proficiency check the commander
completes his/her training or checking from the
normally occupied seat.
(d) When engine-out manoeuvres are carried
out in an aircraft, the engine failure shall be
simulated.
(e) When operating in the co-pilot’s seat, the
checks required by ORO.FC.230 for operating
in the commander’s seat shall, in addition, be
valid and current.
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(f) The pilot relieving the commander shall
have demonstrated, concurrent with the
operator proficiency checks prescribed in
ORO.FC.230(b), practice of drills and
procedures that would not, normally, be his/her
responsibility. Where the differences between
left- and right-hand seats are not significant,
practice may be conducted in either seat.
(g) The pilot other than the commander
occupying the commander’s seat shall
demonstrate practice of drills and procedures,
concurrent with the operator proficiency
checks prescribed in ORO.FC.230(b), which
are the commander’s responsibility acting as
pilot monitoring. Where the differences
between left- and right-hand seats are not
significant, practice may be conducted in either
seat.
AMC1 ORO.FC.235(d) Pilot qualification to ---
operate in either pilot’s seat
SINGLE-ENGINE HELICOPTERS – ---
AUTOROTATIVE LANDING
In the case of single-engined helicopters, the
autorotative landing should be carried out from
left- and right-hand seats on alternate
proficiency checks.
ORO.FC.240 Operation on more than one (a) The procedures or operational restrictions YES ---
type or variant for operation on more than one type or variant
established in the operations manual and
approved by the competent authority shall
cover:
(1) the flight crew members’ minimum
experience level;
(2) the minimum experience level on one type
or variant before beginning training for and
operation of another type or variant;
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(3) the process whereby flight crew qualified
on one type or variant will be trained and
qualified on another type or variant; and
(4) all applicable recent experience
requirements for each type or variant.
(b) When a flight crew member operates both
helicopters and aeroplanes, that flight crew
member shall be limited to operations on only
one type of aeroplane and one type of
helicopter.
(c) Point (a) shall not apply to operations of
performance class B aeroplane if they are
limited to single-pilot classes of reciprocating
engine aeroplanes under VFR by day. Point (b)
shall not apply to operations of performance
class B aeroplane if they are limited to single-
pilot classes of reciprocating engine
aeroplanes.
AMC1 ORO.FC.240 Operation on more ---
than one type or variant
GENERAL ---
(a) Aeroplanes ---
(1) When a flight crew member operates more ---
than one aeroplane class, type or variant as
determined by the operational suitability data
established in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for class-single
pilot or type-single pilot, but not within a
single licence endorsement, the operator should
ensure that the flight crew member does not
operate more than:
(i) three reciprocating engine aeroplane types
or variants;
(ii) three turbo-propeller aeroplane types or
variants;
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(iii) one turbo-propeller aeroplane type or
variant and one reciprocating engine aeroplane
type or variant; or
(iv) one turbo-propeller aeroplane type or
variant and any aeroplane within a particular
class.
(2) When a flight crew member operates more ---
than one aeroplane type or variant within one
or more licence endorsement as determined by
the operational suitability data established in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 748/2012, the operator should ensure that:
(i) the minimum flight crew complement
specified in the operations manual is the same
for each type or variant to be operated;
(ii) the flight crew member does not operate
more than two aeroplane types or variants for
which a separate licence endorsement is
required, unless credits related to the training,
checking, and recent experience requirements
are defined in operational suitability data
established in accordance Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for the relevant
types or variants; and
(iii) only aeroplanes within one licence
endorsement are flown in any one flight duty
period, unless the operator has established
procedures to ensure adequate time for
preparation.
(3) When a flight crew member operates more
than one aeroplane type or variant determined
by the operational suitability data established
in accordance with Commission Regulation
(EU) No 748/2012 for type-single pilot and
type-multi pilot, but not within a single licence
endorsement, the operator should comply with
points (a)(2) and (4).
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(4) When a flight crew member operates more ---
than one aeroplane type or variant as
determined by the operational suitability data
established in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for type multi-
pilot, but not within a single licence
endorsement, or combinations of aeroplane
types or variants as determined by the
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 748/2012 for class single-pilot and type
multi-pilot, the operator should comply with
the following:
(i) point (a)(2);
(ii) before exercising the privileges of more ---
than one licence endorsement:
(A) flight crew members should have ---
completed two consecutive operator
proficiency checks and should have:
- 500 hours in the relevant crew position in
CAT operations with the same operator; or
- for IFR and VFR night operations with
performance class B aeroplanes, 100 hours or
flight sectors in the relevant crew position in
CAT operations with the same operator, if at
least one licence endorsement is related to a
class. A check flight should be
(B) in the case of a pilot having experience
with an operator and exercising the privileges
of more than one licence endorsement, and
then being promoted to command with the
same operator on one of those types, the
required minimum experience as commander is
6 months and 300 hours, and the pilot should
have completed two consecutive operator
proficiency checks before again being eligible
to exercise more than one licence endorsement;
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(iii) before commencing training for and
operation of another type or variant, flight crew
members should have completed 3 months and
150 hours flying on the base aeroplane, which
should include at least one proficiency check,
unless credits related to the training, checking
and recent experience requirements are defined
in operational suitability data established in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 748/2012 for the relevant types or variants;
(iv) after completion of the initial line check on
the new type, 50 hours flying or 20 sectors
should be achieved solely on aeroplanes of the
new type rating, unless credits related to the
training, checking and recent experience
requirements are defined in operational
suitability data established in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012for
the relevant types or variants;
(v) recent experience requirements established
in Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011
for each type operated;
(vi) the period within which line flying
experience is required on each type should be
specified in the operations manual;
(vii) when credits are defined in operational ---
suitability data established in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for
the relevant type or variant, this should be
reflected in the training required in
ORO.FC.230 and:
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(A) ORO.FC.230 (b) requires two operator
proficiency checks every year. When credits
are defined in operational suitability data
established in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012for operator
proficiency checks to alternate between the
types, each operator proficiency check should
revalidate the operator proficiency check for
the other type(s). The operator proficiency
check may be combined with the proficiency
checks for revalidation or renewal of the
aeroplane type rating or the instrument rating
in accordance with Commission Regulation
(EU) No 1178/2011.
(B) ORO.FC.230 (c) requires one line check
every year. When credits are defined in
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 748/2012 for line checks to alternate
between types or variants, each line check
should revalidate the line check for the other
type or variant.
(C) Annual emergency and safety equipment
training and checking should cover all
requirements for each type.
(b) Helicopters ---
(1) If a flight crew member operates more than ---
one type or variant the following provisions
should be met:
(i) The recency requirements and the
requirements for recurrent training and
checking should be met and confirmed prior to
CAT operations on any type, and the minimum
number of flights on each type within a 3-
month period specified in the operations
manual.
(ii) ORO.FC.230 requirements with regard to
recurrent training.
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(iii) When credits related to the training,
checking and recent experience requirements
are defined in operational suitability data
established in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for the relevant
types or variants, the requirements of
ORO.FC.230 with regard to proficiency checks
may be met by a 6 monthly check on any one
type or variant operated. However, a
proficiency check on each type or variant
operated should be completed every 12
months.
(iv) For helicopters with a maximum certified ---
take-off mass (MCTOM) of more than 5 700
kg, or with a maximum operational passenger
seating configuration (MOPSC) of more than
19:
(A) the flight crew member should not fly
more than two helicopter types, unless credits
related to the training, checking and recent
experience requirements are defined in
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU)
No 748/2012 for the relevant types or variants;
(B) a minimum of 3 months and 150 hours
experience on the type or variant should be
achieved before the flight crew member should
commence the conversion course onto the new
type or variant, unless credits related to the
training, checking and recent experience
requirements are defined in operational
suitability data established in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for
the relevant types or variants;
(C) 28 days or 50 hours flying should then be
achieved exclusively on the new type or
variant, unless credits related to the training,
checking and recent experience requirements
are defined in operational suitability data
established in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012for the relevant
types or variants; and
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(D) a flight crew member should not be
rostered to fly more than one type or
significantly different variant of a type during a
single duty period.
(v) In the case of all other helicopters, the
flight crew member should not operate more
than three helicopter types or significantly
different variants, unless credits related to the
training, checking and recent experience
requirements are defined in operational
suitability data established in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for
the relevant types or variants.
(c) Combination of helicopter and aeroplane ---
(1) The flight crew member may fly one
helicopter type or variant and one aeroplane
type irrespective of their MCTOM or MOPSC.
(2) If the helicopter type is covered by
paragraph (b)(1)(iv) then (b)(1)(iv)(B), (C) and
(D) should also apply in this case.
AMC2 ORO.FC.240 Operation on more (a) Terminology
than one type or variant
The terms used in the context of the operation
of more than one type or variant have the
following meaning:
(1) Base aircraft means an aircraft used as a
reference to compare differences with another
aircraft.
(2) Variant means an aircraft or a group of
aircraft within the same pilot type rating that
has differences to the base aircraft requiring
difference training or familiarisation training.
(3) Credit means the recognition of training,
checking or recent experience based on
commonalities between aircraft. For
substantiation of the credits ODR tables or
other appropriate documentation for
comparison of the relevant aircraft
characteristics may be provided.
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(4) Operator difference requirements (ODRs)
mean a formal description of differences
between types or variants flown by a particular
operator.
(b) Philosophy
The concept of operating more than one type or
variant depends upon the experience,
knowledge and ability of the operator and the
flight crew concerned.
The first consideration is whether or not
aircraft types or variants are sufficiently similar
to allow the safe operation of both.
The second consideration is whether or not the
types or variants are sufficiently similar for the
training, checking and recent experience.
Unless credits have been established by the
operational suitability data in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, all
training, checking and recent experience
requirements should be completed
independently for each type or variant.
(c) Methodology – Use of Operator Difference
Requirement (ODR) Tables
(1) Before assigning flight crew members to
operate more than one type or variant of
aircraft, the operator should conduct a detailed
evaluation of the differences or similarities of
the aircraft concerned in order to establish
appropriate procedures or operational
restrictions. This evaluation should be based on
the data established in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012for
the relevant types or variants, and should be
adapted to the operator’s specific aircraft
configurations. This evaluation should take
into account of the following:
(i) the level of technology;
(ii) operational procedures; and
(iii) handling characteristics.
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The methodology described below should be
used as a means of evaluating aeroplane
differences and similarities to justify the
operation of more than one type or variant, and
when credit is sought.
(2) ODR tables Before requiring flight crew
members to operate more than one type or
variant, operators should first nominate one
aircraft as the base aircraft from which to show
differences with the second aircraft type or
variant, the ‘difference aircraft’, in terms of
technology (systems), procedures, pilot
handling and aircraft management. These
differences, known as operator difference
requirements (ODR), preferably presented in
tabular format, constitute part of the
justification for operating more than one type
or variant and also the basis for the associated
differences/familiarisation or reduced type
rating training for the flight crew.
(3) The ODR tables should be presented as can
be found in regulation
(4) Compilation of ODR Tables
(i) ODR 1: General
The general characteristics of the candidate
aircraft are compared with the base aircraft
with regard to:
(A) general dimensions and aircraft design
(number and type of rotors, wing span or
category);
(B) flight deck general design;
(C) cabin layout;
(D) engines (number, type and position);
(E) limitations (flight envelope).
(ii) ODR 2: Systems
Consideration is given to differences in design
between the candidate aircraft and the base
aircraft. For this comparison the Air Transport
Association (ATA) 100 index is used. This
index establishes a system and subsystem
classification and then an analysis performed
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for each index item with respect to the main
architectural, functional and operations
elements, including controls and indications on
the systems control panel.
(iii) ODR 3: Manoeuvres
Operational differences encompass normal,
abnormal and emergency situations and include
any change in aircraft handling and flight
management. It is necessary to establish a list
of operational items for consideration on which
an analysis of differences can be made.
The operational analysis should take the
following into account:
(A) flight deck dimensions (size, cut-off angle
and pilot eye height);
(B) differences in controls (design, shape,
location and function);
(C) additional or altered function (flight
controls) in normal or abnormal conditions;
(D) handling qualities (including inertia) in
normal and in abnormal configurations;
(E) aircraft performance in specific
manoeuvres;
(F) aircraft status following failure;
(G) management (e.g. ECAM, EICAS, navaid
selection, automatic checklists).
(iv) Once the differences for ODR 1, ODR 2
and ODR 3 have been established, the
consequences of differences evaluated in terms
of flight characteristics (FLT CHAR) and
change of procedures (PROC CHNG) should
be entered into the appropriate columns.
(v) Difference Levels - crew training, checking
and currency
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(A) The final stage of an operator’s proposal to
operate more than one type or variant is to
establish crew training, checking and currency
requirements. This may be established by
applying the coded difference levels from
Table 4 to the compliance method column of
the ODR Tables.
(B) Differences items identified in the ODR
tables as impacting flight characteristics, or
procedures, should be analysed in the
corresponding ATA section of the ODR
manoeuvres. Normal, abnormal and emergency
situations should be addressed accordingly.
(d) Difference Levels
(1) Difference levels — General
Difference levels are used to identify the extent
of difference between a base and a candidate
aircraft with reference to the elements
described in the ODR tables. These levels are
proportionate to the differences between a base
and a candidate aircraft. A range of five
difference levels in order of increasing
requirements, identified as A through E, are
each specified for training, checking, and
currency.
Difference levels apply when a difference with
the potential to affect flight safety exists
between a base and a candidate aircraft.
Differences may also affect the knowledge,
skills, or abilities required from a pilot. If no
differences exist, or if differences exist but do
not affect flight safety, or if differences exist
but do not affect knowledge, skills, or abilities,
then difference levels are neither assigned nor
applicable to pilot qualification. When
difference levels apply, each level is based on a
scale of differences related to design features,
systems, or manoeuvres. In assessing the
effects of differences, both flight
characteristics and procedures are considered
since flight characteristics address handling
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required
qualities and performance, while procedures
include normal, non-normal and emergency
items.
Levels for training, checking, and currency are
assigned independently, but are linked
depending on the differences between a base
and candidate aircraft. Training at level E
usually identifies that the candidate aircraft is a
different type to the base aircraft.
(2) Difference levels are summarised in the
table brovided in regulation regarding training,
checking, and currency.
(3) Difference level — Training The training
differences levels specified represent the
minimum requirements. Devices associated
with a higher difference level may be used to
satisfy a training differences requirement.
(i) Level A training
Level A differences training is applicable to
aircraft with differences that can adequately be
addressed through self-instruction. Level A
training represents a knowledge requirement
such that once appropriate information is
provided, understanding and compliance can
be assumed to be demonstrated.
Training needs not covered by level A training
may require level B training, or higher,
depending on the outcome of the evaluations
described in the aircraft evaluation process (CS
FCD.420).
(ii) Level B training
Level B differences training is applicable to
aircraft with system or procedure differences
that can adequately be addressed through aided
instruction.
At level B aided instruction it is appropriate to
ensure pilot understanding, emphasise issues,
provide a standardised method of presentation
of material, or to aid retention of material
following training.
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(iii) Level C training
Level C differences training can only be
accomplished through the use of devices
capable of systems training.
Level C differences training is applicable to
variants having ‘part task’ differences that
affect skills or abilities as well as knowledge.
Training objectives focus on mastering
individual systems, procedures, or tasks, as
opposed to performing highly integrated flight
operations and manoeuvres in ‘real time’.
Level C may also require self-instruction or
aided instruction of a pilot, but cannot be
adequately addressed by a knowledge
requirement alone. Training devices are
required to supplement instruction to ensure
attainment or retention of pilot skills and
abilities to accomplish the more complex tasks,
usually related to operation of particular
aircraft systems.
The minimum acceptable training media for
level C is interactive computer-based training,
cockpit systems simulators, cockpit procedure
trainers, part task trainers [such as Inertial
Navigation System (INS), Flight Management
System (FMS), or Traffic Collision Avoidance
System (TCAS) trainers], or similar devices.
(iv) Level D training
Level D differences training can only be
accomplished with devices capable of
performing flight manoeuvres and addressing
full task differences affecting knowledge,
skills, or abilities.
Devices capable of flight manoeuvres address
full task performance in a dynamic ‘real time’
environment and enable integration of
knowledge, skills and abilities in a simulated
flight environment, involving combinations of
operationally oriented tasks and realistic task
loading for each relevant phase of flight. At
level D, knowledge and skills to complete
necessary normal, non-normal and emergency
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procedures are fully addressed for each variant.
Level D differences training requires mastery
of interrelated skills that cannot be adequately
addressed by separate acquisition of a series of
knowledge areas or skills that are interrelated.
However, the differences are not so significant,
that a full type rating training course is
required. If demonstration of interrelationships
between the systems was important, the use of
a series of separate devices for systems training
would not suffice. Training for level D
differences requires a training device that has
accurate, high fidelity integration of systems
and controls and realistic instrument
indications. Level D training may also require
manoeuvre visual cues, motion cues, dynamics,
control loading or specific environmental
conditions. Weather phenomena such as low
visibility operations or wind shear may or may
not be incorporated. Where simplified or
generic characteristics of an aircraft type are
used in devices to satisfy level D difference
training, significant negative training cannot
occur as a result of the simplification.
Appropriate devices as described in CS
FCD.420(a), satisfying level D differences
training range from those where relevant
elements of aircraft flight manoeuvring,
performance, and handling qualities are
incorporated. The use of a Manoeuvre Training
Device or aircraft is limited for the conduct of
specific manoeuvres or handling differences, or
for specific equipment or procedures.
(v) Level E training
Level E differences training is applicable to
candidate aircraft having such a significant
‘full task’ differences that a full type rating
training course or a type rating training course
with credit for previous experience on similar
aircraft types is required to meet the training
objectives.
The training requires a ‘high fidelity’
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environment to attain or maintain knowledge,
skills, or abilities that can only be satisfied by
the use of FSTDs or the aircraft itself as
mentioned in CS FCD.415(a). Level E training,
if done in an aircraft, should be modified for
safety reasons where manoeuvres can result in
a high degree of risk.
When level E differences training is assigned,
suitable credit or constraints may be applied for
knowledge, skills or abilities related to other
pertinent aircraft types and specifies the
relevant subjects, procedures or manoeuvres.
(4) Difference level — Checking
Differences checking addresses any pertinent
pilot testing or checking. Initial and recurrent
checking levels are the same unless otherwise
specified.
It may be possible to satisfactorily accomplish
recurrent checking objectives in devices not
meeting initial checking requirements. In such
instances the applicant may propose for
revalidation checks the use of certain devices
not meeting the initial check requirements.
(i) Level A checking
Level A differences checking indicates that no
check related to differences is required at the
time of differences training. However, a pilot is
responsible for knowledge of each variant
flown.
(ii) Level B checking
Level B differences checking indicates that a
‘task’ or ‘systems’ check is required following
initial and recurring training.
(iii) Level C checking
Level C differences checking requires a partial
check using a suitable qualified device. A
partial check is conducted relative to particular
manoeuvres or systems.
(iv) Level D checking
Level D differences checking indicates that a
partial proficiency check is required following
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required
both initial and recurrent training. In
conducting the partial proficiency check,
manoeuvres common to each variant may be
credited and need not be repeated. The partial
proficiency check covers the specified
particular manoeuvres, systems, or devices.
Level D checking is performed using scenarios
representing a ‘real time’ flight environment
and uses qualified devices permitted for level
D training or higher.
(v) Level E checking
Level E differences checking requires that a
full proficiency check be conducted in FSTDs
or in an aircraft as mentioned in CS
FCD.415(a), following both initial and
recurrent training. If appropriate, alternating
Level E checking between relevant aircraft is
possible and credit may be defined for
procedures or manoeuvres based on
commonality.
Assignment of level E checking requirements
alone, or in conjunction with level E currency,
does not necessarily result in assignment of a
separate type rating.
(5) Difference level — Currency Differences
currency addresses any currency and re-
currency levels. Initial and recurrent currency
levels are the same unless otherwise specified.
(i) Level A currency Level A currency is
common to each aircraft and does not require
separate tracking. Maintenance of currency in
any aircraft suffices for any other variant
within the same type rating.
(ii) Level B currency Level B currency is
‘knowledge-related’ currency, typically
achieved through self-review by individual
pilots.
(iii) Level C currency
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(A) Level C currency is applicable to one or
more designated systems or procedures, and
relates to both skill and knowledge
requirements. When level C currency applies,
any pertinent lower level currency is also to be
addressed.
(B) Re-establishing level C currency
When currency is lost, it may be re-established
by completing required items using a device
equal to or higher than that specified for level
C training and checking.
(iv) Level D currency
(A) Level D currency is related to designated
manoeuvres and addresses knowledge and
skills required for performing aircraft control
tasks in real time with integrated use of
associated systems and procedures. Level D
currency may also address certain differences
in flight characteristics including performance
of any required manoeuvres and related
normal, non-normal and emergency
procedures. When level D is necessary, any
pertinent lower level currency is also to be
addressed.
(B) Re-establishing level D currency
When currency is lost, currency may be re-
established by completing pertinent
manoeuvres using a device equal to or higher
than that specified for level D differences
training and checking.
(v) Level E currency
(A) Level E currency requires that recent
experience requirements of Part-FCL and
operational requirements be complied with in
each aircraft separately. Level E currency may
also specify other system, procedure, or
manoeuvre currency item(s) necessary for safe
operations, and requires procedures or
manoeuvres to be accomplished in FSTDs or in
an aircraft as mentioned in CS FCD.415(a).
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Provisions are applied in a way which
addresses the required system or manoeuvre
experience.
When level E is assigned between aircraft of
common characteristics, credit may be
permitted. Assignment of level E currency
requirements does not automatically lead to a
determination on same or separate type rating.
Level E currency is tracked by a means that is
acceptable to the competent authority. When
CTLC is permitted, any credit or constraints
applicable to using FSTDs, as mentioned in CS
FCD.415(a), are also to be determined.
(B) Re-establishing level E currency
When currency is lost, currency may be re-
established by completing pertinent
manoeuvres using a device specified for level
E differences training and checking.
(6) Competency regarding non-normal and
emergency procedures — Currency
Competency for non-normal and emergency
manoeuvres or procedures is generally
addressed by checking requirements. Particular
non-normal and emergency manoeuvres or
procedures may not be considered mandatory
for checking or training. In this situation it may
be necessary to periodically practice or
demonstrate those manoeuvres or procedures
specifying currency requirements for those
manoeuvres or procedures.
ORO.FC.A.245 Alternative training and (a) The aeroplane operator having appropriate YES ---
qualification programme experience may substitute one or more of the
following training and checking requirements
- GM1 ORO.FC.A.245 for flight crew by an alternative training and
- GM2.ORO.FC.A.245 qualification programme (ATQP), approved by
the competent authority:
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(1) SPA.LVO.120 on flight crew training and
qualifications;
(2) conversion training and checking;
(3) differences training and familiarisation
training;
(4) command course;
(5) recurrent training and checking; and
(6) operation on more than one type or variant.
(b) The ATQP shall contain training and
checking that establishes and maintains at least
an equivalent level of proficiency achieved by
complying with the provisions of ORO.FC.220
and ORO.FC.230. The level of flight crew
training and qualification proficiency shall be
demonstrated prior to being granted the ATQP
approval by the competent authority.
(c) The operator applying for an ATQP
approval shall provide the competent authority
with an implementation plan, including a
description of the level of flight crew training
and qualification proficiency to be achieved.
(d) In addition to the checks required by
ORO.FC.230 and FCL.060 of Annex I (Part-
FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, each
flight crew member shall complete a line
oriented evaluation (LOE) conducted in an
FSTD. The validity period of an LOE shall be
12 calendar months. The validity period shall
be counted from the end of the month when the
check was taken. When the LOE is undertaken
within the last three months of the validity
period, the new validity period shall be counted
from the original expiry date.
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(e) After two years of operating with an ---
approved ATQP, the operator may, with the
approval of the competent authority, extend the
validity periods of the checks in ORO.FC.230
as follows:
(1) Operator proficiency check to 12 calendar
months. The validity period shall be counted
from the end of the month when the check was
taken. When the check is undertaken within the
last three months of the validity period, the
new validity period shall be counted from the
original expiry date.
(2) Line check to 24 calendar months. The
validity period shall be counted from the end of
the month when the check was taken. When the
check is undertaken within the last six months
of the validity period, the new validity period
shall be counted from the original expiry date.
(3) Emergency and safety equipment checking
to 24 calendar months. The validity period
shall be counted from the end of the month
when the check was taken. When the check is
undertaken within the last six months of the
validity period, the new validity period shall be
counted from the original expiry date.
AMC1 ORO.FC.A.245 Alternative training ---
and qualification programme
COMPONENTS AND IMPLEMENTATION ---
(a) Alternative training and qualification ---
programme (ATQP) components
The ATQP should comprise the following: ---
(1) Documentation that details the scope and ---
requirements of the programme, including the
following:
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(i) The programme should demonstrate that the
operator is able to improve the training and
qualification standards of flight crew to a level
that exceeds the standards prescribed in
ORO.FC and Subpart E of Annex V
(SPA.LVO).
(ii) The operator’s training needs and
established operational and training objectives.
(iii) A description of the process for designing
and gaining approval for the operator’s flight
crew qualification programmes. This should
include quantified operational and training
objectives identified by the operator’s internal
monitoring programmes. External sources may
also be used.
(iv) A description of how the programme will: ---
(A) enhance safety;
(B) improve training and qualification
standards of flight crew;
(C) establish attainable training objectives;
(D) integrate CRM in all aspects of training;
(E) develop a support and feedback process to
form a self-correcting training system;
(F) institute a system of progressive
evaluations of all training to enable consistent
and uniform monitoring of the training
undertaken by flight crew;
(G) enable the operator to be able to respond to
new aeroplane technologies and changes in the
operational environment;
(H) foster the use of innovative training
methods and technology for flight crew
instruction and the evaluation of training
systems; and
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(I) make efficient use of training resources,
specifically to match the use of training media
to the training needs.
(2) A task analysis to determine the: ---
(i) knowledge;
(ii) required skills;
(iii) associated skill-based training; and
(iv) validated behavioural markers, where
appropriate.
For each aeroplane type/class to be included
within the ATQP the operator should establish
a systematic review that determines and
defines the various tasks to be undertaken by
the flight crew when operating that type/class.
Data from other types/classes may also be
used. The analysis should determine and
describe the knowledge and skills required to
complete the various tasks specific to the
aeroplane type/class and/or type of operation.
In addition, the analysis should identify the
appropriate behavioural markers that should be
exhibited. The task analysis should be suitably
validated in accordance with (b)(3). The task
analysis, in conjunction with the data gathering
programme(s) permit the operator to establish a
programme of targeted training together with
the associated training objectives.
(3) Curricula. The curriculum structure and ---
content should be determined by task analysis,
and should include proficiency objectives
including when and how these objectives
should be met.
(i) The training programme should have the ---
following structure:
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(A) Curriculum, specifying the following ---
elements:
(a) Entry requirements: A list of topics and
content, describing what training level will be
required before start or continuation of
training.
(b) Topics: A description of what will be
trained during the lesson.
(c) Targets/Objectives ---
(1) Specific target or set of targets that have to
be reached and fulfilled before the training
course can be continued.
(2) Each specified target should have an
associated objective that is identifiable both by
the flight crew and the trainers.
(3) Each qualification event that is required by
the programme should specify the training that
is required to be undertaken and the required
standard to be achieved.
(A) Daily lesson plan ---
(a) Each lesson/course/training or qualification
event should have the same basic structure.
The topics related to the lesson should be listed
and the lesson targets should be unambiguous.
(b) Each lesson/course or training event
whether classroom, CBT or simulator should
specify the required topics with the relevant
targets to be achieved.
(4) A specific training programme for: ---
(i) each aeroplane type/class within the ATQP;
(ii) instructors (class rating instructor
rating/synthetic flight instructor
authorisation/type rating instructor rating —
CRI/SFI/TRI), and other personnel undertaking
flight crew instruction; and
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(iii) examiners (class rating examiner/synthetic
flight examiner/type rating examiner —
CRE/SFE/TRE).
This should include a method for the
standardisation of instructors and examiners.
Personnel who perform training and checking ---
of flight crew in an operator’s ATQP should
receive the following additional training on:
(A) ATQP principles and goals;
(B) knowledge/skills/behaviour as learned
from task analysis;
(C) line oriented evaluation (LOE)/ LOFT
scenarios to include triggers / markers / event
sets / observable behaviour;
(D) qualification standards;
(E) harmonisation of assessment standards;
(F) behavioural markers and the systemic
assessment of CRM;
(G) event sets and the corresponding desired
knowledge/skills and behaviour of the flight
crew;
(H) the processes that the operator has
implemented to validate the training and
qualification standards and the instructors part
in the ATQP quality control; and
(I) line oriented quality evaluation (LOQE).
(5) A feedback loop for the purpose of ---
curriculum validation and refinement, and to
ascertain that the programme meets its
proficiency objectives.
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(i) The feedback should be used as a tool to
validate that the curricula are implemented as
specified by the ATQP; this enables
substantiation of the curriculum, and that
proficiency and training objectives have been
met. The feedback loop should include data
from operations flight data monitoring, the
advanced flight data monitoring (FDM)
programme and LOE/LOQE programmes. In
addition, the evaluation process should
describe whether the overall targets/objectives
of training are being achieved and should
prescribe any corrective action that needs to be
undertaken.
(ii) The programme’s established quality ---
control mechanisms should at least review the
following:
(A) procedures for approval of recurrent
training;
(B) ATQP instructor training approvals;
(C) approval of event set(s) for LOE/LOFT;
(D) procedures for conducting LOE and
LOQE.
(6) A method for the assessment of flight crew ---
during conversion and recurrent training and
checking. The assessment process should
include event-based assessment as part of the
LOE. The assessment method should comply
with ORO.FC.230.
(i) The qualification and checking programmes ---
should include at least the following elements:
(A) a specified structure;
(B) elements to be tested/examined;
(C) targets and/or standards to be attained;
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(D) the specified technical and procedural
knowledge and skills, and behavioural markers
to be exhibited.
(ii) An LOE event should comprise tasks and
sub-tasks performed by the crew under a
specified set of conditions. Each event has one
or more specific training targets/objectives,
which require the performance of a specific
manoeuvre, the application of procedures, or
the opportunity to practise cognitive,
communication or other complex skills. For
each event the proficiency that is required to be
achieved should be established. Each event
should include a range of circumstances under
which the crews’ performance is to be
measured and evaluated. The conditions
pertaining to each event should also be
established and they may include the prevailing
meteorological conditions (ceiling, visibility,
wind, turbulence etc.), the operational
environment (navigation aid inoperable etc.),
and the operational contingencies (non-normal
operation etc.).
(iii) The markers specified under the operator’s
ATQP should form one of the core elements in
determining the required qualification standard.
A typical set of markers is shown in the table
below:
(*See corresponding table)
(iv) The topics / targets integrated into the
curriculum should be measurable and
progression on any training/course is only
allowed if the targets are fulfilled.
(7) A data monitoring/analysis programme ---
consisting of the following:
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(i) A flight data monitoring (FDM) programme
as described in AMC1 ORO.AOC.130. Data
collection should reach a minimum of 60 % of
all relevant flights conducted by the operator
before ATQP approval is granted. This
proportion may be increased as determined by
the competent authority.
(ii) An advanced FDM when an extension to
the ATQP is requested: an advanced FDM
programme is determined by the level of
integration with other safety initiatives
implemented by the operator, such as the
operator’s safety management system. The
programme should include both systematic
evaluations of data from an FDM programme
and flight crew training events for the relevant
crews. Data collection should reach a minimum
of 80 % of all relevant flights and training
conducted by the operator. This proportion
may be varied as determined by the competent
authority.
The purpose of an FDM or advanced FDM ---
programme for ATQP is to enable the operator
to:
(A) provide data to support the programme’s
implementation and justify any changes to the
ATQP;
(B) establish operational and training
objectives based upon an analysis of the
operational environment; and
(C) monitor the effectiveness of flight crew
training and qualification.
(iii) Data gathering: the data analysis should be ---
made available to the person responsible for
ATQP within the organisation. The data
gathered should:
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(A) include all fleets that are planned to be
operated under the ATQP;
(B) include all crews trained and qualified
under the ATQP;
(C) be established during the implementation
phase of ATQP; and
(D) continue throughout the life of the ATQP.
(iv) Data handling: the operator should
establish a procedure to ensure the
confidentiality of individual flight crew
members, as described by AMC1
ORO.AOC.130.
(v) The operator that has a flight data
monitoring programme prior to the proposed
introduction of ATQP may use relevant data
from other fleets not part of the proposed
ATQP.
(b) Implementation. The operator should ---
develop an evaluation and implementation
process including the following stages:
(1) A safety case that demonstrates ---
equivalency of:
(i) the revised training and qualification
standards compared to the standards of
ORO.FC and/or Subpart E of Annex V
(SPA.LVO) prior to the introduction of ATQP;
and
(ii) any new training methods implemented as
part of ATQP.
The safety case should encompass each phase ---
of implementation of the programme and be
applicable over the lifetime of the programme
that is to be overseen. The safety case should:
- demonstrate the required level of safety;
- ensure the required safety is maintained
throughout the lifetime of the programme; and
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- minimise risk during all phases of the
programme’s implementation and operation.
The elements of a safety case include: ---
- planning: integrated and planned with the
operation (ATQP) that is to be justified;
- criteria;
- safety-related documentation including a
safety checklist;
- programme of implementation to include
controls and validity checks; and
- oversight, including review and audits.
Criteria for the establishment of a safety case. ---
The safety case should:
- be able to demonstrate that the required or
equivalent level of safety is maintained
throughout all phases of the programme;
- be valid to the application and the proposed
operation;
- be adequately safe and ensure the required
regulatory safety standards or approved
equivalent safety standards are achieved;
- be applicable over the entire lifetime of the
programme;
- demonstrate completeness and credibility of
the programme;
- be fully documented;
- ensure integrity of the operation and the
maintenance of the operations and training
infrastructure;
- ensure robustness to system change;
- address the impact of technological advance,
obsolescence and change; and
- address the impact of regulatory change.
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(2) A task analysis as required by (a)(2) to
establish the operator’s programme of targeted
training and the associated training objectives.
(3) A period of operation whilst data is
collected and analysed to validate the safety
case and task analysis. During this period the
operator should continue to operate in
accordance with ORO.FC and/or Subpart E of
Annex V (SPA.LVO), as applicable. The
length of this period should be determined by
the competent authority.
AMC1 ORO.FC.A.245(a) Alternative ---
training and qualification programme
OPERATOR EXPERIENCE ---
The appropriate experience should be at least 2
years’ continuous operation.
AMC1 ORO.FC.A.245(d)(e)(2) Alternative ---
training and qualification programme
COMBINATION OF CHECKS ---
(a) The line orientated evaluation (LOE) may
be undertaken with other ATQP training.
(b) The line check may be combined with a
line oriented quality evaluation (LOQE).
ORO.FC.A.250 Commanders holding a (a) The holder of a CPL(A) (aeroplane) shall ---
CPL(A) only act as commander in commercial air
transport on a single-pilot aeroplane if:
(1) when carrying passengers under VFR
outside a radius of 50 NM (90 km) from an
aerodrome of departure, he/she has a minimum
of 500 hours of flight time on aeroplanes or
holds a valid instrument rating; or
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(2) when operating on a multi-engine type
under IFR, he/she has a minimum of 700 hours
of flight time on aeroplanes, including 400
hours as pilot-in-command. These hours shall
include 100 hours under IFR and 40 hours in
multi-engine operations. The 400 hours as
pilot-in-command may be substituted by hours
operating as co-pilot within an established
multi-pilot crew system prescribed in the
operations manual, on the basis of two hours of
flight time as co-pilot for one hour of flight
time as pilot-in command.
(3) when operating on a single-engined
aeroplane under IFR, he/she has a minimum of
700 hours of flight time on aeroplanes,
including 400 hours as pilot-in-command.
Those hours shall include 100 hours under IFR.
The 400 hours as pilot-in-command may be
substituted by hours operating as co-pilot
within an established multi-pilot crew system
prescribed in the operations manual, on the
basis of two hours of flight time as co-pilot for
one hour of flight time as pilot-in command.
(b) For operations under VFR by day of
performance class B aeroplanes (a)(1) shall not
apply.
ORO.FC.H.250 Commanders holding a (a) The holder of a CPL(H) (helicopter) shall ---
CPL(H) only act as commander in commercial air
transport on a single-pilot helicopter if:
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(1) when operating under IFR, he/she has a
minimum of 700 hours total flight time on
helicopters, including 300 hours as pilot-in-
command. These hours shall include 100 hours
under IFR. The 300 hours as pilot-in-command
may be substituted by hours operating as co-
pilot within an established multi-pilot crew
system prescribed in the operations manual on
the basis of two hours of flight time as co-pilot
for one hour flight time as pilot-in command;
(2) when operating under visual meteorological ---
conditions (VMC) at night, he/she has:
(i) a valid instrument rating; or
(ii) 300 hours of flight time on helicopters,
including 100 hours as pilot-in-command and
10 hours as pilot flying at night.
SECTION 3 ---
Additional requirements for commercial
specialised operations and CAT operations
referred to in ORO.FC.005(b)(1) and (2)
ORO.FC.330 Recurrent training and (a) Each flight crew member shall complete
checking — operator proficiency check operator proficiency checks to demonstrate
his/her competence in carrying out normal,
abnormal and emergency procedures, covering
the relevant aspects associated with the
specialised tasks described in the operations
manual.
(b) Appropriate consideration shall be given
when operations are undertaken under IFR or
at night.
(c) The validity period of the operator
proficiency check shall be 12 calendar months.
The validity period shall be counted from the
end of the month when the check was taken.
When the operator proficiency check is
undertaken within the last three months of the
validity period, the new validity period shall be
counted from the original expiry date.
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SUBPART CC ---
CABIN CREW ---
ORO.CC.005 Scope This Subpart establishes the requirements to be ---
met by the operator when operating an aircraft
with cabin crew.
SECTION 1 ---
General requirements ---
ORO.CC.100 Number and composition of (a) The number and composition of cabin crew
cabin crew shall be determined in accordance with 7.a of
Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008,
- GM1 ORO.CC.100 taking into account operational factors or
circumstances of the particular flight to be
operated. At least one cabin crew member shall
be assigned for the operation of aircraft with an
MOPSC of more than 19 when carrying one or
more passenger(s).
(b) For the purpose of complying with (a), the ---
minimum number of cabin crew shall be the
greater of the following:
(1) the number of cabin crew members
established during the aircraft certification
process in accordance with the applicable
certification specifications, for the aircraft
cabin configuration used by the operator; or
(2) if the number under (1) has not been
established, the number of cabin crew
established during the aircraft certification
process for the maximum certified passenger
seating configuration reduced by 1 for every
whole multiple of 50 passenger seats of the
aircraft cabin configuration used by the
operator falling below the maximum certified
seating capacity; or
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(3) one cabin crew member for every 50, or
fraction of 50, passenger seats installed on the
same deck of the aircraft to be operated.
(c) For operations where more than one cabin
crew member is assigned, the operator shall
nominate one cabin crew member to be
responsible to the pilot-in-
command/commander.
AMC1 ORO.CC.100 Number and ---
composition
of cabin crew
DETERMINATION OF THE NUMBER AND ---
COMPOSITION OF CABIN CREW
(a) When determining the minimum number of ---
cabin crew required to operate aircraft engaged
in commercial air transport operations, factors
to be taken into account should include:
(1) the number of doors/exits;
(2) the type(s) of doors/exits and the associated
assisting evacuation means;
(3) the location of doors/exits in relation to
cabin crew stations and the cabin layout;
(4) the location of cabin crew stations taking ---
into account direct view requirements and
cabin crew duties in an emergency evacuation
including:
(i) opening floor level doors/exits and initiating
stair or slide deployment;
(ii) assisting passengers to pass through
doors/exits; and
(iii) directing passengers away from
inoperative doors/exits, crowd control and
passenger flow management;
(5) actions required to be performed by cabin
crew in ditching, including the deployment of
slide-rafts and the launching of life-rafts;
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(6) additional actions required to be performed
by cabin crew members when responsible for a
pair of doors/exits; and
(7) the type and duration of the flight to be
operated.
(b) When scheduling cabin crew for a flight,
the operator should establish procedures that
take account of the experience of each cabin
crew member. The procedures should specify
that the required cabin crew includes some
cabin crew members who have at least 3
months experience as an operating cabin crew
member.
ORO.CC.110 Conditions for assignment to (a) Cabin crew members shall only be assigned ---
duties to duties on an aircraft if they:
(1) are at least 18 years of age;
(2) have been assessed, in accordance with the
applicable requirements of Annex IV (Part-
MED) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, as
physically and mentally fit to perform their
duties and discharge their responsibilities
safely; and
(3) have successfully completed all applicable
training and checking required by this Subpart
and are competent to perform the assigned
duties in accordance with the procedures
specified in the operations manual.
(b) Before assigning to duties cabin crew ---
members who are working on a freelance or
part-time basis, the operator shall verify that all
applicable requirements of this Subpart are
complied with, taking into account all services
rendered by the cabin crew member to any
other operator(s), to determine in particular:
(1) the total number of aircraft types and
variants operated; and
(2) the applicable flight and duty time
limitations and rest requirements.
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(c) Operating cabin crew members, as well as
their role with regard to the safety of
passengers and flight, shall be clearly identified
to the passengers.
ORO.CC.115 Conduct of training courses (a) A detailed programme and syllabus shall be
and associated checking established by the operator for each training
course in accordance with the applicable
- GM1 ORO.CC.115 requirements of this Subpart, and of Annex V
- GM1 ORO.CC.115(e) (Part-CC) to Regulation (EU) No 290/2012
-GM2 ORO.CC.115(e) where applicable, to cover the duties and
-GM3 ORO.CC.115(e) responsibilities to be discharged by the cabin
-GM4 ORO.CC.115(e) crew members.
-GM5 ORO.CC.115(e)
(b) Each training course shall include
theoretical and practical instruction together
with individual or collective practice, as
relevant to each training subject, in order that
the cabin crew member achieves and maintains
the adequate level of proficiency in accordance
with this Subpart.
(c) Each training course shall be: ---
(1) conducted in a structured and realistic
manner; and
(2) performed by personnel appropriately
qualified for the subject to be covered.
(d) During or following completion of all
training required by this Subpart, each cabin
crew member shall undergo a check covering
all training elements of the relevant training
programme, except for crew resource
management (CRM) training. Checks shall be
performed by personnel appropriately qualified
to verify that the cabin crew member has
achieved and/or maintains the required level of
proficiency.
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(e) CRM training courses and CRM modules
where applicable shall be conducted by a cabin
crew CRM instructor. When CRM elements
are integrated in other training, a cabin crew
CRM instructor shall manage the definition
and implementation of the syllabus.
AMC1 ORO.CC.115(c) Conduct of training ---
courses and associated checking
TRAINING METHODS AND TRAINING ---
DEVICES
(a) The operator should establish training ---
methods that take into account the following:
(1) training should include the use of cabin
training devices, audio-visual presentations,
computer-based training and other types of
training, as most appropriate to the training
element; and
(2) a reasonable balance between the different
training methods should be ensured so that the
cabin crew member achieves the level of
proficiency necessary for a safe performance of
all related cabin crew duties and
responsibilities.
(b) When assessing the representative training ---
devices to be used, the operator should:
(1) take into account that a representative
training device may be used to train cabin crew
as an alternative to the use of the actual aircraft
or required equipment;
(2) ensure that those items relevant to the ---
training and checking intended to be given
accurately represent the aircraft or equipment
in the following particulars:
(i) layout of the cabin in relation to doors/exits,
galley areas and safety and emergency
equipment stowage as relevant;
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(ii) type and location of passenger seats and
cabin crew stations;
(iii) doors/exits in all modes of operation,
particularly in relation to the method of
operation, mass and balance and operating
forces, including failure of power-assist
systems where fitted; and
(iv) safety and emergency equipment of the
type provided in the aircraft (such equipment
may be ‘training use only’ items and, for
oxygen and protective breathing equipment,
units charged with or without oxygen may be
used); and
(3) assess the following factors when ---
determining whether a door/exit can be
considered to be a variant of another type:
(i) door/exit arming/disarming;
(ii) direction of movement of the operating
handle;
(iii) direction of door/exit opening;
(iv) power-assist mechanisms; and
(v) assisting evacuation means such as slides
and ropes.
AMC1 ORO.CC.115(d) Conduct of training ---
courses and associated checking
CHECKING ---
(a) Checking required for each training course ---
should be accomplished by the method
appropriate to the training element to be
checked. These methods include:
(1) practical demonstration;
(2) computer-based assessment;
(3) in-flight checks;
(4) oral or written tests.
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(b) Training elements that require individual
practical participation may be combined with
practical checks.
AMC1 ORO.CC.115(e) Conduct of training ---
courses and associated checking
RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (CRM) (a) General ---
TRAINING – MULTI CABIN CREW (1) Training environment
OPERATIONS CRM training should be conducted in the non-
operational environment (classroom and
computer-based) and in the operational
environment (cabin training device and
aircraft). Tools such as group discussions, team
task analysis, team task simulation and
feedback
should be used.
(2) Classroom training
Whenever possible, classroom training should
be conducted in a group session away from
the pressures of the usual working
environment, so that the opportunity is
provided for cabin crew members to interact
and communicate in an environment conducive
to learning.
(3) Computer-based training
Computer-based training should not be
conducted as a stand-alone training method,
but may be conducted as a complementary
training method.
(4) Cabin training devices and aircraft
Whenever practicable, relevant parts of CRM
training should be conducted in
representative cabin training devices that
reproduce a realistic operational environment,
or in the aircraft. During practical training,
interaction should be encouraged.
(5) Integration into cabin crew training
CRM principles should be integrated into
relevant parts of cabin crew training and
operations, including checklists, briefings and
emergency procedures.
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(6) Combined CRM training for flight crew
and cabin crew
(i) Operators should provide combined training
for flight crew and cabin crew during recurrent
CRM training.
(ii) The combined training should address at
least:
(A) effective communication, coordination of
tasks and functions of flight crew and cabin
crew; and
(B) mixed multinational and cross-cultural
flight crew and cabin crew, and their
interaction, if applicable.
(iii) Combined CRM training should be
conducted by flight crew CRM trainer or cabin
crew CRM trainer.
(iv) There should be an effective liaison
between flight crew and cabin crew training
departments. Provision should be made for
transfer of relevant knowledge and
skills between flight crew and cabin crew CRM
trainers.
(7) Management system
CRM training should address hazards and risks
identified by the operator’s management
system described in ORO.GEN.200.
(8) Competency-based CRM training
Whenever practicable, the compliance-based
approach concerning CRM training may be
substituted by a competency-based approach.
In this context, CRM training should be
characterised by a performance orientation,
with emphasis on standards of performance
and their measurement, and the development of
training to the specified performance
standards.
(9) Contracted CRM training
If the operator chooses not to establish its own
CRM training, another operator, a third
party or a training organisation may be
contracted to provide the training in
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accordance
with ORO.GEN.205. In case of contracted
CRM training, the operator should ensure that
the content of the course covers the specific
culture, the type of operations and the
associated procedures of the operator. When
crew members from different operators
attend the same course, the CRM training
should be specific to the relevant flight
operations and to the trainees concerned.
(b) Operator’s CRM training
The operator’s CRM training should cover all
elements listed in Table 1 of (g). Several
training elements are specified as ‘not
required’ for the operator’s CRM training,
since they are covered under the introductory
CRM course for cabin crew as required in
Annex V (Part-CC) to Commission Regulation
(EU) No 1178/2011.
(c) Operator aircraft type conversion CRM
training
If the cabin crew member undertakes the
operator’s conversion training on an aircraft
type, the applicable CRM training elements
should be covered as specified in Table 1 of
(g).
(d) Annual recurrent CRM training
(1) Annual recurrent CRM training should be
provided in such a way that all CRM training
elements specified for the annual recurrent
training in Table 1 of (g) are covered over a
period not exceeding 3 years.
(2) Operators should update their recurrent
CRM training programme over a period not
exceeding 3 years. The revision of the
programme should take into account
information
from the operator’s management system.
(e) Senior cabin crew member course
(1) CRM training for senior cabin crew
members should be the application of
knowledge
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gained in previous CRM training and
operational experience relevant to the specific
duties
and responsibilities of a senior cabin crew
member. The operator should ensure that for
the senior cabin crew member course the CRM
training elements are integrated into the
training, as specified in Table 1 of (g).
(2) During the training the senior cabin crew
member should demonstrate the ability:
(i) to manage the operation; and
(ii) to take appropriate leadership and
management decisions.
(f) Training elements
The CRM training elements to be covered are
specified in Table 1 of (g). The operator should
ensure that the following aspects are addressed:
(1) Resilience development
CRM training should address the main aspects
of resilience development. The training
should cover:
(i) Mental flexibility
Cabin crew should be trained to:
(A) understand that mental flexibility is
necessary to recognise critical changes;
(B) reflect on their judgement and adjust it to
the unique situation;
(C) avoid fixed prejudices and over-reliance on
standard solutions; and
(D) remain open to changing assumptions and
perceptions.
(ii) Performance adaptation
Cabin crew should be trained to:
(A) mitigate frozen behaviours, overreactions
and inappropriate hesitation; and
(B) adjust actions to current conditions.
(2) Surprise and startle effect
CRM training should address unexpected,
unusual and stressful situations including
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interruptions and distractions. Therefore, CRM
training should be designed to prepare
cabin crew to master sudden events and
associated uncontrolled reactions.
(3) Cultural differences
CRM training should cover cultural differences
of multinational and cross-cultural crews.
This includes recognising that:
(i) different cultures may have different
communication specifics, ways of
understanding and approaches to the same
situation or problem;
(ii) difficulties may arise when crew members
with different mother tongue
communicate in a common language which is
not their mother tongue; and
(iii) cultural differences may lead to different
methods for identifying a situation and
solving a problem.
(4) Operator’s safety culture and company
culture
CRM training should cover the operator’s
safety culture, its company culture, the type of
operations and the associated procedures of the
operator. This should include areas of
operations that may lead to particular
difficulties or involve unusual hazards.
(5) Case studies
(i) CRM training should cover aircraft type-
specific case studies, based on the
information available within the operator’s
management system, including:
(A) accident and serious incident reviews to
analyse and identify any associated
non-technical causal and contributory factors,
and instances or examples of
lack of CRM; and
(B) analysis of occurrences that were well
managed.
(ii) If relevant aircraft type-specific or
operator-specific case studies are not available,
the operator should consider other case studies
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relevant to the scale and scope of
its operations.
(g) CRM training syllabus
Table 1 below specifies which CRM training
elements should be covered in each type of
training.
The levels of training in Table 1 can be
described as follows:
(1) ‘Required’ means training that should be
instructional or interactive in style to meet the
objectives specified in the CRM training
programme or to refresh and strengthen
knowledge gained in a previous training.
(2) ‘In-depth’ means training that should be
instructive or interactive in style taking full
advantage of group discussions, team task
analysis, team task simulation, etc., for the
acquisition or consolidation of knowledge,
skills and attitudes. The CRM training
elements
should be tailored to the specific needs of the
training phase being undertaken.
Tabel 1 – Cabin crew CRM training
AMC2 ORO.CC.115(e) Conduct of training For single cabin crew operations, AMC1
courses and associated checking ORO.CC.115(e) should be applied with the
CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (CRM) following
TRAINING — SINGLE CABIN CREW differences:
OPERATIONS (a) Relevant training elements
CRM training should focus on the elements
specified in Table 1 of (g) of AMC1
ORO.CC.115(e)
which are relevant to single cabin crew
operations. Therefore, single cabin crew CRM
training should include, among others:
(1) situation awareness;
(2) workload management;
(3) decision-making;
(4) resilience development;
(5) surprise and startle effect; and
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(6) effective communication and coordination
with
(i) the flight crew; and
(ii) other operational personnel and ground
services.
(b) Computer-based training
Notwithstanding (a)(3) of AMC1
ORO.CC.115(e), computer-based training may
be conducted as a stand-alone training method
for a cabin crew member operating on aircraft
with a maximum operational passenger seating
configuration of 19 or less.
AMC3 ORO.CC.115(e) Conduct of training (a) Applicability
courses and associated checking The provisions described herein:
CABIN CREW CRM TRAINER (1) should be fulfilled by cabin crew CRM
trainers responsible for classroom CRM
training and
(2) are not applicable to trainers or instructors
conducting training other than CRM training,
but integrating CRM elements into this
training. Nevertheless, trainers or instructors
who are integrating CRM elements into the
aircraft type training, recurrent training or
senior cabin crew member training should have
acquired relevant knowledge of human
performance and limitations, and have
completed appropriate CRM training.
(b) Qualification of cabin crew CRM trainer
(1) A training and standardisation programme
for cabin crew CRM trainers should be
established.
(2) The cabin crew CRM trainer, in order to be
suitably qualified, should:
(i) have adequate knowledge of the relevant
flight operations;
(ii) have received instructions on human
performance and limitations (HPL);
(iii) have completed an introductory CRM
course, as required in Annex V (Part-CC) to
Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011,
and an operator’s CRM training, as
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specified in AMC1 ORO.CC.115(e);
(iv) have received training in group facilitation
skills;
(v) have received additional training in the
fields of group management, group
dynamics and personal awareness; and
(vi) have demonstrated the knowledge, skills
and credibility required to train the CRM
training elements in the non-operational
environment, as specified in Table 1 of
AMC1 ORO.CC.115(e).
(3) An experienced CRM trainer may become a
cabin crew CRM trainer if he/she
demonstrates a satisfactory knowledge of the
relevant flight operations and the cabin
crew working environment, and fulfils the
provisions specified in (2)(ii) to (2)(vi).
(c) Training of cabin crew CRM trainer
(1) Training of cabin crew CRM trainers
should be both theoretical and practical.
Practical
elements should include the development of
specific trainer skills, particularly the
integration of CRM into day-to-day operations.
(2) The basic training of cabin crew CRM
trainers should include the training elements
for cabin crew, as specified in Table 1 of
AMC1 ORO.CC.115(e). In addition, the basic
training
should include the following:
(i) introduction to CRM training;
(ii) operator’s management system; and
(iii) characteristics, as applicable:
(A) of the different types of CRM trainings
(initial, recurrent, etc.);
(B) of combined training; and
(C) related to the type of aircraft or operation.
(3) The refresher training of cabin crew CRM
trainers should include new methodologies,
procedures and lessons learned.
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(4) The training of cabin crew CRM trainers
should be conducted by cabin crew CRM
trainers with a minimum of 3 years’
experience. Assistance may be provided by
experts in order to address specific areas.
(d) Assessment of cabin crew CRM trainer
(1) A cabin crew CRM trainer should be
assessed by the operator when conducting the
first CRM training course. This first
assessment should be valid for a period of 3
years.
(2) Assessment is the process of observing,
recording, interpreting and debriefing the cabin
crew CRM trainer. The operator should
describe the assessment process in the
operations manual. All personnel involved in
the assessment must be credible and competent
in their role.
(e) Recency and renewal of qualification as
cabin crew CRM trainer
(1) For recency of the 3-year validity period,
the cabin crew CRM trainer should:
(i) conduct at least 2 CRM training events in
any 12-month period;
(ii) be assessed within the last 12 months of the
3-year validity period by the operator;
and
(iii) complete CRM trainer refresher training
within the 3-year validity period.
(2) The next 3-year validity period should start
at the end of the previous period.
(3) For renewal, i.e. when a cabin crew CRM
trainer does not fulfil the provisions of (1),
he/she should, before resuming as cabin crew
CRM trainer:
(i) comply with the qualification provisions of
(b) and (d); and
(ii) complete CRM trainer refresher training.
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ORO.CC.120 Initial training course (a) Each new entrant who does not already ---
hold a valid cabin crew attestation issued in
accordance with Annex V (Part-CC) to
Regulation (EU) No 290/2012:
(1) shall be provided with an initial training
course as specified in CC.TRA.220 of that
Annex; and
(2) shall successfully undergo the associated
examination before undertaking other training
required by this Subpart.
(b) Elements of the initial training programme
may be combined with the first aircraft type
specific training and operator conversion
training, provided that the requirements of
CC.TRA.220 are met and any such element(s)
are recorded as elements of the initial training
course in the training records of the cabin crew
members concerned.
AMC1 ORO.CC.120 (a)(1)
Initial training course
NEW ENTRANTS IN OPERATIONS
OTHER THAN COMMERCIAL AIR
TRANSPORT
OPERATIONS
(a) When a new entrant to an operator
conducting operations other than commercial
air transport is a cabin crew member, not
holding a valid cabin crew attestation, who has
already acquired experience as cabin crew in
operations other than commercial air transport,
credit may be granted to the elements of the
initial training programme he/she has
previously completed if such training elements
are documented in his/her training records.
(b) In such a case, the operator should ensure
that:
(1) the full training programme as specified in
Appendix 1 to Part-CC has been covered, and
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(2) the new entrant successfully undergoes the
examination required by ORO.CC.120(a)(2).
ORO.CC.125 Aircraft type specific training (a) Each cabin crew member shall have ---
and completed appropriate aircraft type specific
operator conversion training training and operator conversion training, as
well as the associated checks, before being:
(1) first assigned by the operator to operate as a
cabin crew member; or
(2) assigned by that operator to operate on
another aircraft type.
(b) When establishing the aircraft type specific
and the operator conversion training
programmes and syllabi, the operator shall
include, where available, the relevant elements
defined in the mandatory part of the
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Regulation (EU) No
748/2012.
(c) The aircraft type specific training ---
programme shall:
(1) involve training and practice on a
representative training device or on the actual
aircraft; and
(2) cover at least the following aircraft type ---
specific training elements:
(i) aircraft description as relevant to cabin crew
duties;
(ii) all safety equipment and systems installed
relevant to cabin crew duties;
(iii) operation and actual opening, by each
cabin crew member, of each type or variant of
normal and emergency doors and exits in the
normal and emergency modes;
(iv) demonstration of the operation of the other
exits including flight crew compartment
windows;
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(v) fire and smoke protection equipment where
installed;
(vi) evacuation slide training, where fitted;
(vii) operation of the seat, restraint system and
oxygen system equipment relevant to pilot
incapacitation.
(d) The operator conversion training ---
programme for each aircraft type to be
operated shall:
(1) involve training and practice on a
representative training device or on the actual
aircraft;
(2) include training in the operator’s standard
operating procedures for cabin crew members
to be first assigned to duties by the operator;
(3) cover at least the following operator ---
specific training elements as relevant to the
aircraft type to be operated:
(i) description of the cabin configuration;
(ii) location, removal and use of all portable
safety and emergency equipment carried on-
board;
(iii) all normal and emergency procedures;
(iv) passenger handling and crowd control;
(v) fire and smoke training including the use of
all related fire-fighting and protective
equipment representative of that carried on-
board;
(vi) evacuation procedures;
(vii) pilot incapacitation procedures;
(viii) applicable security requirements and
procedures;
(ix) crew resource management.
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AMC1 ORO.CC.125(c) Aircraft type ---
specific training and operator conversion
training
TRAINING PROGRAMME – AIRCRAFT ---
TYPE SPECIFIC TRAINING
The following aircraft type specific training ---
elements should be covered as relevant to the
aircraft type:
(a) Aircraft description ---
(1) type of aircraft, principal dimensions,
narrow or wide bodied, single or double deck;
(2) speed, altitude, range;
(3) passenger seating capacity;
(4) flight crew number and minimum number
of required cabin crew;
(5) cabin doors/exits location and sill height;
(6) cargo and unpressurised areas as relevant;
(7) aircraft systems relevant to cabin crew
duties;
(8) flight crew compartment - general
presentation, pilot seats and their mechanism,
emergency exits, storage;
(9) required cabin crew stations;
(10) flight crew compartment security -
general: door components and use;
(11) access to avionics bay where relevant;
(12) lavatories - general: doors, systems, calls
and signs; and
(13) least risk bomb location.
(b) Safety and emergency equipment and ---
aircraft systems installed
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Each cabin crew member should receive ---
realistic training on, and demonstration of, the
location and use of all aircraft type specific
safety and emergency equipment and aircraft
systems installed, with emphasis on the
following:
(1) slides, and where non-self-supporting slides
are carried, the use of any associated assisting
evacuation means;
(2) life-rafts and slide-rafts, including the
equipment attached to, and/or carried in, the
raft;
(3) drop-out oxygen system; and
(4) communication equipment.
(c) Operation of doors and exits ---
This training should be conducted in a
representative training device or in the actual
aircraft and should include failure of power
assist systems where fitted and the action and
forces required to operate and deploy
evacuation slides. Training should also include
operation and actual opening of the flight crew
compartment security door when installed.
(d) Fire and smoke protection equipment ---
Each cabin crew member should be trained in
using fire and/or smoke protection equipment
where fitted.
(e) Evacuation slide training ---
(1) Each cabin crew member should descend
an evacuation slide from a height
representative of the aircraft main deck sill
height.
(2) The slide should be fitted to a
representative training device or to the actual
aircraft.
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(3) A further descent should be made when the
cabin crew member qualifies on an aircraft
type in which the main deck exit sill height
differs significantly from any aircraft type
previously operated.
(f) Operation of equipment related to pilot ---
incapacitation
The training should cover any type specific
elements or conditions relevant to cabin crew
actions to be taken in case of pilot
incapacitation. Each cabin crew member
should be trained to operate all equipment that
must be used in case of pilot incapacitation.
AMC1 ORO.CC.125(d) Aircraft type- ---
specific training and operator conversion
training
TRAINING PROGRAMME – OPERATOR ---
CONVERSION TRAINING
The following training elements should be ---
covered as relevant to the aircraft type and the
related operator’s specifics:
(a) Description of the cabin configuration ---
The description should cover all elements
specific to the operator’s cabin configuration
and any differences with those previously
covered in accordance with AMC1
ORO.CC.125(c), including:
(1) required and additional cabin crew stations
- location (including direct view) , restraint
systems, control panels;
(2) passenger seats – general presentation and
associated operator’s specific features and
equipment;
(3) designated stowage areas;
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(4) lavatories - operator’s specific features,
equipment and systems additional to the
aircraft type specific elements;
(5) galley - location, appliances, water and
waste system, including shut-off, sinks, drains,
stowage, control panels, calls and signs; and
where applicable
(6) crew rest areas - location, systems, controls,
safety and emergency equipment;
(7) cabin dividers, curtains, partitions;
(8) lift location, use, controls;
(9) stowage for the containment of waste; and
(10) passenger hand rail system or alternative
means.
(b) Safety and emergency equipment ---
Each cabin crew member should receive ---
realistic training on and demonstration of the
location and use of all safety and emergency
equipment carried including:
(1) life-jackets, infant life-jackets and flotation
devices;
(2) first-aid and drop-out oxygen, including
supplementary systems;
(3) fire extinguishers and protective breathing
equipment (PBE);
(4) crash axe or crowbar;
(5) emergency lights including torches;
(6) communication equipment, including
megaphones;
(7) slide-rafts and life-rafts’ survival packs and
their contents;
(8) pyrotechnics (actual or representative
devices);
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(9) first-aid kits, emergency medical kits and
their contents; and
(10) other portable safety and emergency
equipment, where applicable.
(c) Normal and emergency procedures ---
Each cabin crew member should be trained on ---
the operator’s normal and emergency
procedures as applicable, with emphasis on the
following:
(1) passenger briefing, safety demonstration
and cabin surveillance;
(2) severe air turbulence;
(3) non–pressurisation, slow and sudden
decompression, including the donning of
portable oxygen equipment by each cabin crew
member; and
(4) other in-flight emergencies and
(5) carriage of special categories of passengers
(SCPs).
(d) Passenger handling and crowd control ---
Training should be provided on the practical ---
aspects of passenger preparation and handling,
as well as crowd control, in various emergency
situations as applicable to the operator’s
specific aircraft cabin configuration, and
should cover the following:
(1) communications between flight crew and
cabin crew and use of all communications
equipment, including the difficulties of
coordination in a smoke-filled environment;
(2) verbal commands;
(3) the physical contact that may be needed to
encourage people out of a door/exit and onto a
slide;
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(4) redirection of passengers away from
unusable doors/exits;
(5) marshalling of passengers away from the
aircraft;
(6) evacuation of special categories of
passengers with emphasis on passengers with
disabilities or reduced mobility; and
(7) authority and leadership.
(e) Fire and smoke training ---
(1) Each cabin crew member should receive
realistic and practical training in the use of all
fire-fighting equipment including protective
clothing representative of that carried in the
aircraft.
(2) Each cabin crew member should: ---
(i) extinguish an actual fire characteristic of an
aircraft interior fire except that, in the case of
halon extinguishers, an alternative
extinguishing agent may be used; and
(ii) exercise the donning and use of PBE in an
enclosed simulated smoke-filled environment
with particular emphasis on identifying the
actual source of fire and smoke.
(f) Evacuation procedures ---
Training should include all the operator’s
procedures that are applicable to planned or
unplanned evacuations on land and water. It
should also include, where relevant, the
additional actions required from cabin crew
members responsible for a pair of doors/exits
and the recognition of when doors/exits are
unusable or when evacuation equipment is
unserviceable.
(g) Pilot incapacitation procedures ---
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Unless the minimum flight crew is more than
two, each cabin crew member should be
trained in the procedure for pilot
incapacitation. Training in the use of flight
crew checklists, where required by the
operator's standard operating procedures
(SOPs), should be conducted by a practical
demonstration.
(h) CRM
(1) The operator should ensure that all
applicable CRM training elements, as specified
in Table 1 of AMC1 ORO.CC.115(e), are
covered to the level required in the column
‘Operator aircraft type conversion training’.
(2) The operator's CRM training and the CRM
training covered during the operator aircraft
type conversion training should be conducted
by at least one cabin crew CRM instructor.
AMC1 ORO.CC.125 & ORO.CC.130 ---
Aircraft type specific training and operator
conversion training & Differences training
TRAINING PROGRAMMES ---
The programmes and syllabi of aircraft type
specific training, operator conversion training
and differences training should take into
account the cabin crew member's previous
training as documented in his/her training
records.
AMC1 ORO.CC.125(b) & ORO.CC.130(c) ---
Aircraft type specific training and operator
conversion training & Differences training
NON-MANDATORY ---
(RECOMMENDATIONS) ELEMENTS OF
OPERATIONAL SUITABILITY DATA
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When developing the training programmes and
syllabi for aircraft-type specific training and
for differences training, the operator should
consider the non-mandatory
(recommendations) elements for the relevant
type that are provided in the operational
suitability data established in accordance with
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.
ORO.CC.130 Differences training (a) In addition to the training required in ---
ORO.CC.125, the cabin crew member shall
complete appropriate training and checking
covering any differences before being assigned
on:
(1) a variant of an aircraft type currently
operated; or
(2) a currently operated aircraft type or variant ---
with different:
(i) safety equipment;
(ii) safety and emergency equipment location;
or
(iii) normal and emergency procedures.
(b) The differences training programme shall: ---
(1) be determined as necessary on the basis of a
comparison with the training programme
completed by the cabin crew member, in
accordance with ORO.CC.125(c) and (d), for
the relevant aircraft type; and
(2) involve training and practice in a
representative training device or the actual
aircraft as relevant to the difference training
element to be covered.
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(c) When establishing a differences training
programme and syllabus for a variant of an
aircraft type currently operated, the operator
shall include, where available, the relevant
elements defined in the mandatory part of the
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Regulation (EU) No
748/2012.
AMC1 ORO.CC.125 & ORO.CC.130
Aircraft type specific training and operator
conversion training & differences training
AMC1 ORO.CC.125(b) & ORO.CC.130(c)
Aircraft type specific training and operator
conversion training & differences training
ORO.CC.135 Familiarisation After completion of aircraft type specific
training and operator conversion training on an
aircraft type, each cabin crew member shall
complete appropriate supervised familiarisation
on the type before being assigned to operate as
a member of the minimum number of cabin
crew required in accordance with
ORO.CC.100.
AMC1 ORO.CC.135 Familiarisation ---
FAMILIARISATION FLIGHTS AND ---
AIRCRAFT FAMILIARISATION VISITS
(a) For CAT operations, familiarisation of ---
cabin crew to a new aircraft type or variant
should be completed in accordance with the
following, as relevant:
(1) New entrant cabin crew
Each new entrant cabin crew member having ---
no previous comparable operating experience
should participate in:
(i) a familiarisation visit as described in (c) to
the aircraft to be operated; and
(ii) familiarisation flights as described in (b).
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(2) Cabin crew operating on a subsequent ---
aircraft type
A cabin crew member assigned to operate on a ---
subsequent aircraft type with the same operator
should participate either in a:
(i) familiarisation flight as described in (b); or
(ii) familiarisation visit as described in (c) to
the aircraft type to be operated.
(b) Familiarisation flights ---
(1) During familiarisation flights, the cabin
crew member should be assigned in addition to
the minimum number of cabin crew required in
accordance with ORO.CC.100 and if
applicable ORO.CC.200.
(2) Familiarisation flights should be: ---
(i) conducted under the supervision of the
senior cabin crew member;
(ii) structured and conducted with the cabin
crew member participating in pre-flight, in-
flight and post-flight safety duties;
(iii) operated with the cabin crew member
wearing the operator’s cabin crew uniform; and
(iv) recorded in the training record of the cabin
crew member.
(c) Aircraft familiarisation visits ---
(1) Aircraft visits should enable the cabin crew ---
member to become familiar with the aircraft
environment and its equipment. Accordingly,
aircraft visits should be conducted by
appropriately qualified persons. The aircraft
visit should provide an overview of the
aircraft’s exterior, interior and aircraft systems
with emphasis on the following:
(i) interphone and public address systems;
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(ii) evacuation alarm systems;
(iii) emergency lighting;
(iv) smoke detection systems;
(v) safety and emergency equipment;
(vi) flight crew compartment;
(vii) cabin crew stations;
(viii) lavatories;
(ix) galleys, galley security and water shut-off;
(x) cargo areas if accessible from the passenger
compartment during flight;
(xi) circuit breaker panels located in the
passenger compartment;
(xii) crew rest areas; and
(xiii) doors/exits location and environment.
(2) An aircraft familiarisation visit may be
combined with the aircraft type specific
training or operator conversion training
required by ORO.CC.125.
(d) For cabin crew members assigned to
operations other than CAT, familiarisation
should be completed by means of an aircraft
familiarisation visit, or a familiarisation flight,
as appropriate taking into account the aircraft
type to be operated by the cabin crew member.
ORO.CC.140 Recurrent training (a) Each cabin crew member shall complete
annually recurrent training and checking.
(b) Recurrent training shall cover the actions
assigned to each member of the cabin crew in
normal and emergency procedures and drills
relevant to each aircraft type and/or variant to
be operated.
(c) Aircraft type specific training elements: ---
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(1) Recurrent training shall include annually
touch-drills by each cabin crew member for
simulating the operation of each type or variant
of normal and emergency doors and exits for
passenger evacuation.
(2) Recurrent training shall also include at ---
intervals not exceeding three years:
(i) operation and actual opening by each cabin
crew member, in a representative training
device or in the actual aircraft, of each type or
variant of normal and emergency exits in the
normal and emergency modes;
(ii) actual operation by each cabin crew
member, in a representative training device or
in the actual aircraft, of the flight crew
compartment security door, in both normal and
emergency modes, and of the seat and restraint
system, and a practical demonstration of the
oxygen system equipment relevant to pilot
incapacitation;
(iii) demonstration of the operation of all other
exits including the flight crew compartment
windows; and
(iv) demonstration of the use of the life-raft, or
slide raft, where fitted.
(d) Operator specific training elements: ---
(1) Recurrent training shall include annually: ---
(i) by each cabin crew member: ---
(A) location and handling of all safety and
emergency equipment installed or carried on
board; and
(B) the donning of life-jackets, portable oxygen
and protective breathing equipment (PBE);
(ii) stowage of articles in the passenger
compartment;
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(iii) procedures related to aircraft surface
contamination;
(iv) emergency procedures;
(v) evacuation procedures;
(vi) incident and accident review;
(vii) crew resource management;
(viii) aero-medical aspects and first aid
including related equipment;
(ix) security procedures.
(2) Recurrent training shall also include at ---
intervals not exceeding three years:
(i) use of pyrotechnics (actual or representative
devices);
(ii) practical demonstration of the use of flight
crew checklists;
(iii) realistic and practical training in the use of
all fire-fighting equipment, including
protective clothing, representative of that
carried in the aircraft;
(iv) by each cabin crew member: ---
(A) extinguishing a fire characteristic of an
aircraft interior fire;
(B) donning and use of PBE in an enclosed
simulated smoke-filled environment.
(e) Validity periods: ---
(1) The annual recurrent training validity
period shall be 12 calendar months counted
from the end of the month when the check was
taken.
(2) If the recurrent training and checking
required in (a) are undertaken within the last
three calendar months of the validity period,
the new validity period shall be counted from
the original expiry date.
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(3) For the additional triennial training
elements specified in (c)(2) and (d)(2), the
validity period shall be 36 calendar months
counted from the end of the month when the
checks were taken.
AMC1 ORO.CC.140 Recurrent training ---
TRAINING PROGRAMMES ---
(a) Elements of the annual recurrent training ---
programme
(1) Training on the location and handling of
safety and emergency equipment should
include all relevant oxygen systems, and any
equipment such as defibrillators if carried on
board.
(2) Training on emergency procedures should
cover pilot incapacitation procedures and
crowd control techniques.
(3) CRM training should satisfy the following: ---
(i) the applicable training elements specified in
Table 1 of AMC1 ORO.CC.115(e) should be
covered within a 3-year cycle to the level
required by Column ‘Annual Recurrent
Training’;
(ii) the definition and implementation of the
CRM training programme should be managed
by a cabin crew CRM trainer; and
(iii) when CRM training is provided by stand-
alone modules, it should be conducted by at
least one cabin crew CRM trainer.
(b) Additional triennial elements of recurrent ---
training programme
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(1) Training on the operation of normal and
emergency doors/exits should cover failure of
power assist systems where fitted. This should
include the actions and forces required to
operate and deploy evacuation slides, and
additional training when relevant for cabin
crew members responsible for a pair of
doors/exits.
(2) Training in the use of all fire-fighting
equipment, including protective clothing,
representative of that carried in the aircraft
should include individual practice by each
cabin crew member to extinguish a fire
characteristic of an aircraft interior fire except
that, in the case of halon extinguishers, an
alternative extinguishing agent may be used.
Training should place particular emphasis on
identifying the actual source of fire or smoke.
(3) Training on normal and emergency
procedures for special categories of passengers
(SCPs) should cover the specific procedures
established by the operator for the carriage of
SCPs. The operator may determine that such
training is to be completed at shorter intervals,
taking into account the route structure,
passenger profiles, aircraft types operated,
seasonal demands and operations.
ORO.CC.145 Refresher training (a) When a cabin crew member, during the ---
preceding six months within the validity period
- GM1 ORO.CC.145 of the last relevant recurrent training and
checking:
(1) has not performed any flying duties, he/she
shall, before being reassigned to such duties,
complete refresher training and checking for
each aircraft type to be operated; or
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(2) has not performed flying duties on one ---
particular aircraft type, he/she shall, before
being reassigned to duties, complete on that
aircraft type:
(i) refresher training and checking; or
(ii) two familiarisation flights in accordance
with ORO.CC.135.
(b) The refresher training programme for each ---
aircraft type shall at least cover:
(1) emergency procedures;
(2) evacuation procedures;
(3) operation and actual opening, by each cabin
crew member, of each type or variant of
normal and emergency exits and of the flight
crew compartment security door in the normal
and emergency modes;
(4) demonstration of the operation of all other
exits including the flight crew compartment
windows;
(5) location and handling of all relevant safety
and emergency equipment installed or carried
on-board.
(c) The operator may elect to replace refresher
training by recurrent training if the
reinstatement of the cabin crew member’s
flying duties commences within the validity
period of the last recurrent training and
checking. If that validity period has expired,
refresher training may only be replaced by
aircraft type specific and operator conversion
training as specified in ORO.CC.125.
AMC1 ORO.CC.145 Refresher training ---
TRAINING PROGRAMME ---
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(a) Training on emergency procedures should
include pilot incapacitation procedures and
crowd control techniques as applicable to the
aircraft type; and
(b) Operation of doors and exits by each cabin
crew member should include failure of power
assist systems where fitted as well as the action
and forces required to operate and deploy
evacuation slides.
SECTION 2 ---
Additional requirements for commercial air ---
transport operations
ORO.CC.200 Senior cabin crew member (a) When more than one cabin crew member is
required, the composition of the cabin crew
- GM1 ORO.CC.200(e) shall include a senior cabin crew member
- GM2 ORO.CC.200(e) nominated by the operator.
(b) The operator shall nominate cabin crew ---
members to the position of senior cabin crew
member only if they:
(1) have at least one year of experience as
operating cabin crew member; and
(2) have successfully completed a senior cabin
crew training course and the associated check.
(c) The senior cabin crew training course shall ---
cover all duties and responsibilities of senior
cabin crew members and shall include at least
the following elements:
(1) pre-flight briefing;
(2) cooperation with the crew;
(3) review of operator requirements and legal
requirements;
(4) accident and incident reporting;
(5) human factors and crew resource
management (CRM); and
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(6) flight and duty time limitations and rest
requirements.
(d) The senior cabin crew member shall be
responsible to the commander for the conduct
and coordination of normal and emergency
procedures specified in the operations manual,
including for discontinuing non-safety-related
duties for safety or security purposes.
(e) The operator shall establish procedures to
select the most appropriately qualified cabin
crew member to act as senior cabin crew
member if the nominated senior cabin crew
member becomes unable to operate. Changes
to these procedures shall be notified to the
competent authority.
AMC1 ORO.CC.200(c) Senior cabin crew ---
member
TRAINING PROGRAMME ---
The senior cabin crew member training course ---
should at least cover the following elements:
(a) Pre-flight briefing: ---
(1) operating as a crew;
(2) allocation of cabin crew stations and
responsibilities; and
(3) consideration of the particular flight,
aircraft type, equipment, area and type of
operation including extended range operations
with two-engine aeroplanes (ETOPS) and
special categories of passengers with emphasis
on passengers with disabilities or reduced
mobility, infants and stretcher cases.
(b) Cooperation within the crew: ---
(1) discipline, responsibilities and chain of
command;
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(2) importance of coordination and
communication; and
(3) pilot incapacitation.
(c) Review of operator requirements and legal ---
requirements:
(1) passenger briefing, safety briefing cards;
(2) securing of galleys;
(3) stowage of cabin baggage;
(4) electronic equipment;
(5) procedures when fuelling with passengers
on board;
(6) turbulence; and
(7) documentation.
(d) Accident and incident reporting.
(e) Human factors and CRM: ---
The operator should ensure that all applicable
elements specified in Table 1 of AMC1
ORO.CC.115(e) are integrated into the training
and covered to the level required by Column
‘Senior Cabin Crew Course’.
(f) Flight and duty time limitations and rest
requirements (FTL).
AMC1 ORO.CC.200(d) Senior cabin crew ---
member
RESPONSIBILITY TO THE COMMANDER ---
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When the level of turbulence so requires, and
in the absence of any instructions from the
flight crew, the senior cabin crew member
should be entitled to discontinue non-safety
related duties and advise the flight crew of the
level of turbulence being experienced and the
need for the fasten seat belt signs to be
switched on. This should be followed by the
cabin crew securing the passenger cabin and
other relevant areas.
AMC1 ORO.CC.200(e) Senior cabin crew
member
UNABLE TO OPERATE
(a) Replacement of senior cabin crew member
at a base of the operator
A senior cabin crew member who did not
report for or cannot commence the assigned
flight or series of flights originating from a
base of the operator should be replaced without
undue delay. The flight should not depart
unless another senior cabin crew member has
been assigned.
(b) Replacement of incapacitated or
unavailable senior cabin crew member
(1) A senior cabin crew member, who becomes
incapacitated during a flight or series of flights,
or unavailable at a stopover (layover) point,
should be replaced without undue delay by
another senior cabin crew member qualified on
the concerned aircraft type/variant. If there is
no other senior cabin crew member, the most
appropriately qualified cabin crew member
should be assigned to act as senior cabin crew
member in order to reach a base of the
operator.
(2) If during the series of flights the aircraft
transits via a base of the operator, the assigned
cabin crew member acting as senior cabin crew
member should be replaced by another senior
cabin crew member.
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AMC2 ORO.CC.200(e) Senior cabin crew
member
MOST APPROPRIATELY QUALIFIED
CABIN CREW MEMBER
Selection of the most appropriately qualified
cabin crew member should take into account if
the individual’s experience as operating cabin
crew member is adequate for the conduct of
duties required of a senior cabin crew member.
The selected cabin crew member should have
operational experience on the concerned
aircraft type/variant.
ORO.CC.205 Reduction of the number of (a) Whenever any passengers are on board an
cabin crew during ground operations and in aircraft, the minimum number of cabin crew
unforeseen circumstances required in accordance with ORO.CC.100 shall
be present in the passenger compartment.
- GM1 ORO.CC.205(b)(2)
(b) Subject to the conditions specified in (c), ---
this number may be reduced:
(1) during normal ground operations not
involving refuelling/defuelling when the
aircraft is at its parking station; or
(2) in unforeseen circumstances if the number
of passengers carried on the flight is reduced.
In this case a report shall be submitted to the
competent authority after completion of the
flight.
(c) Conditions: ---
(1) procedures ensuring that an equivalent level
of safety is achieved with the reduced number
of cabin crew, in particular for evacuation of
passengers, are established in the operations
manual;
(2) the reduced cabin crew includes a senior
cabin crew member as specified in ORO.CC.
200;
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(3) at least one cabin crew member is required
for every 50, or fraction of 50, passengers
present on the same deck of the aircraft;
(4) in the case of normal ground operations
with aircraft requiring more than one cabin
crew member, the number determined in
accordance with (c)(3) shall be increased to
include one cabin crew member per pair of
floor level emergency exits.
AMC1 ORO.CC.205(c)(1) Reduction of the ---
number of cabin crew during ground
operations and in unforeseen circumstances
PROCEDURES WITH REDUCED NUMBER ---
OF CABIN CREW
(a) During ground operations, if reducing the ---
applicable minimum required number of cabin
crew, the operator should ensure that the
procedures required by ORO.CC.205 (c)(1)
specify that:
(1) electrical power is available on the aircraft;
(2) a means of initiating an evacuation is
available to the senior cabin crew member or at
least one member of the flight crew is in the
flight crew compartment;
(3) cabin crew stations and associated duties
are specified in the operations manual; and
(4) cabin crew remain aware of the position of
servicing and loading vehicles at and near the
exits.
Additionally, in the case of passengers ---
embarkation:
(5) the senior cabin crew member should have
performed the pre-boarding safety briefing to
the cabin crew; and
(6) the pre-boarding cabin checks should have
been completed.
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(b) If, in unforeseen circumstances, the number ---
of cabin crew members is reduced below the
applicable minimum required number, for
example in the event of incapacitation or
unavailability of cabin crew, the procedures
established for this purpose in the operations
manual should take into consideration at least
the following:
(1) reduction of passenger numbers;
(2) reseating of passengers with due regard to
doors/exits and other applicable limitations;
and
(3) relocation of cabin crew taking into account
the factors specified in AMC1 ORO.CC.100
and any change of procedures.
ORO.CC.210 Additional conditions for Cabin crew members shall only be assigned to ---
assignment to duties duties, and operate, on a particular aircraft type
or variant if they:
- GM1 ORO.CC.210(d)
(a) hold a valid attestation issued in accordance
with Annex V (Part-CC) to Regulation (EU)
No 290/2012;
(b) are qualified on the type or variant in
accordance with this Subpart;
(c) comply with the other applicable
requirements of this Subpart and Annex IV
(Part-CAT);
(d) wear the operator’s cabin crew uniform.
ORO.CC.215 Training and checking (a) Training and checking programmes YES
programs and related documentation including syllabi required by this Subpart shall
be approved by the competent authority and
- GM1 ORO.CC.215(b)(2) specified in the operations manual.
(b) After a cabin crew member has successfully ---
completed a training course and the associated
check, the operator shall:
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(1) update the cabin crew member’s training
records in accordance with ORO.MLR.115;
and
(2) provide him/her with a list showing updated
validity periods as relevant to the aircraft
type(s) and variant(s) on which the cabin crew
member is qualified to operate.
ORO.CC.250 Operation on more than one (a) A cabin crew member shall not be assigned YES ---
aircraft type or variant to operate on more than three aircraft types,
except that, with the approval of the competent
- GM1 ORO.CC.250 authority, the cabin crew member may be
assigned to operate on four aircraft types if for
at least two of the types:
(1) safety and emergency equipment and type-
specific normal and emergency procedures are
similar; and
(2) non-type-specific normal and emergency
procedures are identical.
(b) For the purpose of (a) and for cabin crew ---
training and qualifications, the operator shall
determine:
(1) each aircraft as a type or a variant taking
into account, where available, the relevant
elements defined in the mandatory part of the
operational suitability data established in
accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012
for the relevant aircraft type or variant; and
(2) variants of an aircraft type to be different ---
types if they are not similar in the following
aspects:
(i) emergency exit operation;
(ii) location and type of portable safety and
emergency equipment;
(iii) type-specific emergency procedures.
AMC1 ORO.CC.250(b) Operation on more ---
than one aircraft type or variant
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DETERMINATION OF AIRCRAFT TYPES ---
AND VARIANTS
(a) When determining similarity of location ---
and type of portable safety and emergency
equipment, the following factors should be
assessed:
(1) all portable safety and emergency
equipment is stowed in the same, or in
exceptional circumstances, in substantially the
same location;
(2) all portable safety and emergency
equipment requires the same method of
operation;
(3) portable safety and emergency equipment ---
includes:
(i) fire-fighting equipment;
(ii) protective breathing equipment (PBE);
(iii) oxygen equipment;
(iv) crew life-jackets;
(v) torches;
(vi) megaphones;
(vii) first-aid equipment;
(viii) survival and signalling equipment; and
(ix) other safety and emergency equipment,
where applicable.
(b) The type-specific emergency procedures to ---
be considered should include at least the
following:
(1) land and water evacuation;
(2) in-flight fire;
(3) non-pressurisation, slow and sudden
decompression; and
(4) pilot incapacitation.
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(c) When determining similarity of doors/exits ---
in the absence of operational suitability data
established in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for the relevant
aircraft type(s) or variant(s), the following
factors should be assessed, except for self-help
exits, such as type III and type IV exits, that
need not be included in the assessment:
(1)door/exit arming and disarming;
(2) direction of movement of the operating
handle;
(3) direction of door/exit opening;
(4) power assist mechanisms; and
(5) assisting evacuation means.
ORO.CC.255 Single cabin crew member (a) The operator shall select, recruit, train and
operations check the proficiency of cabin crew members
to be assigned to single cabin crew member
operations according to criteria appropriate to
this type of operation.
(b) Cabin crew members who have no previous ---
operating experience as single cabin crew
member shall only be assigned to such type of
operation after they have:
(1) completed training as required in (c) in
addition to other applicable training and
checking required by this Subpart;
(2) successfully passed the checks verifying
their proficiency in discharging their duties and
responsibilities in accordance with the
procedures specified in the operations manual;
and
(3) undertaken familiarisation flying of at least
20 hours and 15 sectors on the relevant aircraft
type under the supervision of an appropriately
experienced cabin crew member.
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(c) The following additional training elements ---
shall be covered with particular emphasis to
reflect single cabin crew operations:
(1) responsibility to the commander for the
conduct of normal and emergency procedures;
(2) importance of coordination and
communication with the flight crew, in
particular when managing unruly or disruptive
passengers;
(3) review of operator requirements and legal
requirements;
(4) documentation;
(5) accident and incident reporting; and
(6) flight and duty time limitations and rest
requirements.
---
SUBPART TC ---
TECHNICAL CREW IN HEMS, HHO OR ---
NVIS OPERATIONS
ORO.TC.100 Scope This Subpart establishes the requirements to be ---
met by the operator when operating an aircraft
with technical crew members in commercial air
transport helicopter emergency medical service
(HEMS), night vision imaging system (NVIS)
operations or helicopter hoist operations
(HHO).
ORO.TC.105 Conditions for assignment to (a) Technical crew members in commercial air ---
duties transport HEMS, HHO or NVIS operations
shall only be assigned duties if they:
- GM1 ORO.TC.105
(1) are at least 18 years of age;
(2) are physically and mentally fit to safely
discharge assigned duties and responsibilities;
(3) have completed all applicable training
required by this Subpart to perform the
assigned duties;
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(4) have been checked as proficient to perform
all assigned duties in accordance with the
procedures specified in the operations manual.
(b) Before assigning to duties technical crew ---
members who are self-employed and/or
working on a freelance or part-time basis, the
operator shall verify that all applicable
requirements of this Subpart are complied with,
taking into account all services rendered by the
technical crew member to other operator(s) to
determine in particular:
(1) the total number of aircraft types and
variants operated;
(2) the applicable flight and duty time
limitations and rest requirements.
ORO.TC.110 Training and checking (a) The operator shall establish a training
programme in accordance with the applicable
requirements of this Subpart to cover the duties
and responsibilities to be performed by
technical crew members.
(b) Following the completion of initial,
operator conversion, differences and recurrent
training, each technical crew member shall
undergo a check to demonstrate their
proficiency in carrying out normal and
emergency procedures.
(c) Training and checking shall be conducted
for each training course by personnel suitably
qualified and experienced in the subject to be
covered. The operator shall inform the
competent authority about the personnel
conducting the checks.
AMC1 ORO.TC.110 Training and checking ---
GENERAL ---
(a) Elements of training that require individual
practice may be combined with practical
checks.
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(b) The checks should be accomplished by the ---
method appropriate to the type of training
including:
(1) practical demonstration;
(2) computer-based assessment;
(3) in-flight checks; and/or
(4) oral or written tests.
AMC1 ORO.TC.110(a) Training and The technical crew training programme for
checking initial, operator conversion and recurrent
CRM TRAINING training should include relevant CRM training
elements as specified in AMC1 ORO.FC.115.
ORO.TC.115 Initial training Before undertaking the operator conversion ---
training, each technical crew member shall
complete initial training, including:
(a) general theoretical knowledge on aviation
and aviation regulations covering all elements
relevant to the duties and responsibilities
required of technical crew;
(b) fire and smoke training;
(c) survival training on ground and in water,
appropriate to the type and area of operation;
(d) aero-medical aspects and first-aid;
(e) communication and relevant CRM elements
of ORO.FC.115 and ORO.FC.215.
AMC1 ORO.TC.115 Initial training ---
ELEMENTS ---
(a) The elements of initial training mentioned ---
in ORO.TC.115 should include in particular:
(1) General theoretical knowledge on aviation ---
and aviation regulations relevant to duties and
responsibilities:
(i) the importance of crew members
performing their duties in accordance with the
operations manual;
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(ii) continuing competence and fitness to
operate as a crew member with special regard
to flight and duty time limitations and rest
requirements;
(iii) an awareness of the aviation regulations
relating to crew members and the role of the
competent and inspecting authority;
(iv) general knowledge of relevant aviation
terminology, theory of flight, passenger
distribution, meteorology and areas of
operation;
(v) pre-flight briefing of the crew members and
the provision of necessary safety information
with regard to their specific duties;
(vi) the importance of ensuring that relevant
documents and manuals are kept up-to-date
with amendments provided by the operator;
(vii) the importance of identifying when crew
members have the authority and responsibility
to initiate an evacuation and other emergency
procedures; and
(viii) the importance of safety duties and
responsibilities and the need to respond
promptly and effectively to emergency
situations.
(2) Fire and smoke training: ---
(i) reactions to emergencies involving fire and
smoke and identification of the fire sources;
(ii) the classification of fires and the
appropriate type and techniques of application
of extinguishing agents, the consequences of
misapplication, and of use in a confined space;
and
(iii) the general procedures of ground-based
emergency services at aerodromes.
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(3) When conducting extended overwater
operations, water survival training, including
the use of personal flotation equipment.
(4) Before first operating on an aircraft fitted
with life-rafts or other similar equipment,
training on the use of this equipment, including
practice in water.
(5) Survival training appropriate to the areas of
operation, (e.g. polar, desert, jungle, sea or
mountain).
(6) Aero-medical aspects and first aid, ---
including:
(i) instruction on first aid and the use of first-
aid kits; and
(ii) the physiological effects of flying.
(7) Effective communication between technical
crew members and flight crew members
including common language and terminology.
ORO.TC.120 Operator conversion training Each technical crew member shall complete: ---
(a) operator conversion training, including ---
relevant CRM elements,
(1) before being first assigned by the operator
as a technical crew member; or
(2) when changing to a different aircraft type
or class, if any of the equipment or procedures
mentioned in (b) are different.
(b) Operator conversion training shall include: ---
(1) the location and use of all safety and
survival equipment carried on the aircraft;
(2) all normal and emergency procedures;
(3) on-board equipment used to carry out duties
in the aircraft or on the ground for the purpose
of assisting the pilot during HEMS, HHO or
NVIS operations.
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AMC1 ORO.TC.120&.125 Operator ---
conversion training and differences training
ELEMENTS ---
(a) Operator conversion training mentioned in ---
ORO.TC.120 (b) and differences training
mentioned in ORO.TC.125 (a) should include
the following:
(1) Fire and smoke training, including practical ---
training in the use of all fire fighting equipment
as well as protective clothing representative of
that carried in the aircraft. Each technical crew
member should:
(i) extinguish a fire characteristic of an aircraft
interior fire except that, in the case of Halon
extinguishers, an alternative extinguishing
agent may be used; and
(ii) practise the donning and use of protective
breathing equipment (when fitted) in an
enclosed, simulated smoke-filled environment.
(2) Practical training on operating and opening
all normal and emergency exits for passenger
evacuation in an aircraft or representative
training device and demonstration of the
operation of all other exits.
(3) Evacuation procedures and other ---
emergency situations, including:
(i) recognition of planned or unplanned
evacuations on land or water - this training
should include recognition of unusable exits or
unserviceable evacuation equipment;
(ii) in-flight fire and identification of fire
source; and
(iii) other in-flight emergencies.
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(4) When the flight crew is more than one, ---
training on assisting if a pilot becomes
incapacitated, including a demonstration of:
(i) the pilot's seat mechanism;
(ii) fastening and unfastening the pilot's seat
restraint system;
(iii) use of the pilot's oxygen equipment, when
applicable; and
(iv) use of pilots' checklists.
(5) Training on, and demonstration of, the ---
location and use of safety equipment including
the following:
(i) life-rafts, including the equipment attached
to, and/or carried in, the raft, where applicable;
(ii) life-jackets, infant life-jackets and flotation
devices, where applicable;
(iii) fire extinguishers;
(iv) crash axe or crow bar;
(v) emergency lights including portable lights;
(vi) communication equipment, including
megaphones;
(vii) survival packs, including their contents;
(viii) pyrotechnics (actual or representative
devices);
(ix) first-aid kits, their contents and emergency
medical equipment; and
(x) other safety equipment or systems, where
applicable.
(6) Training on passenger briefing/safety
demonstrations and preparation of passengers
for normal and emergency situations.
(7) Training on the use of dangerous goods, if
applicable.
(8) Task-specific training.
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AMC2 ORO.TC.120&.125 Operator ---
conversion training and differences training
GENERAL ---
(a) The operator should determine the content
of the conversion or differences training taking
account of the technical crew member's
previous training as documented in the
technical crew member's training records.
(b) Aircraft conversion or differences training
should be conducted according to a syllabus
and include the use of relevant equipment and
emergency procedures and practice on a
representative training device or on the actual
aircraft.
(c) The operator should specify in the
operations manual the maximum number of
types or variants that can be operated by a
technical crew member.
ORO.TC.125 Differences training (a) Each technical crew member shall complete
differences training when changing equipment
or procedures on types or variants currently
operated.
(b) The operator shall specify in the operations
manual when such differences training is
required.
ORO.TC.130 Familiarisation flights Following completion of the operator
conversion training, each technical crew
member shall undertake familiarisation flights
prior to operating as a required technical crew
member in HEMS, HHO or NVIS operations.
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ORO.TC.135 Recurrent training (a) Within every 12-month period, each
technical crew member shall undergo recurrent
training relevant to the type or class of aircraft
and equipment that the technical crew member
operates. Elements of CRM shall be integrated
into all appropriate phases of the recurrent
training.
(b) Recurrent training shall include theoretical
and practical instruction and practice.
AMC1 ORO.TC.135 Recurrent training ---
ELEMENTS ---
(a) The 12-month period mentioned in
ORO.TC.135 (a) should be counted from the
last day of the month when the first checking
was made. Further training and checking
should be undertaken within the last 3 calendar
months of that period. The new 12-month
period should be counted from the original
expiry date.
(b) The recurrent practical training should ---
include every year:
(1) emergency procedures including pilot
incapacitation;
(2) evacuation procedures;
(3) touch-drills by each technical crew member
for opening normal and emergency exits for
(passenger) evacuation;
(4) the location and handling of emergency
equipment and the donning by each technical
crew member of life-jackets and protective
breathing equipment (PBE), when applicable;
(5) first aid and the contents of the first-aid
kit(s);
(6) stowage of articles in the cabin;
(7) use of dangerous goods, if applicable;
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(8) incident and accident review; and
(9) crew resource management: all major
topics of the initial CRM training should be
covered over a period not exceeding 3 years.
(c) Recurrent training should include every 3 ---
years:
(1) practical training on operating and opening
all normal and emergency exits for passenger
evacuation in an aircraft or representative
training device and demonstration of the
operation of all other exits;
(2) practical training in the use of all fire ---
fighting equipment as well as protective
clothing representative of that carried in the
aircraft. Each technical crew member should:
(i) extinguish a fire characteristic of an aircraft
interior fire except that, in the case of Halon
extinguishers, an alternative extinguishing
agent may be used; and
(ii) practise the donning and use of protective
breathing equipment (when fitted) in an
enclosed, simulated smoke-filled environment;
(3) use of pyrotechnics (actual or
representative devices); and
(4) demonstration of the use of the life-raft,
where fitted.
ORO.TC.140 Refresher training (a) Each technical crew member who has not
undertaken duties in the previous six months
shall complete the refresher training specified
in the operations manual.
(b) The technical crew member who has not ---
performed flying duties on one particular
aircraft type or class during the preceding six
months shall, before being assigned on that
type or class, complete either:
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(1) refresher training on the type or class; or
(2) two familiarisation sectors on the aircraft
type or class.
AMC1 ORO.TC.140 Refresher training ---
ELEMENTS ---
(a) Refresher training may include
familiarisation flights.
(b) Refresher training should include at least ---
the following:
(1) emergency procedures, including pilot
incapacitation;
(2) evacuation procedures;
(3) practical training on operating and opening
all normal and emergency exits for passenger
evacuation in an aircraft or representative
training device and demonstration of the
operation of all other exits; and
(4) the location and handling of emergency
equipment, and the donning of life-jackets and
protective breathing equipment, when
applicable.
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AMC3 ORO.MLR.100 Operations manual – ---
general
CONTENTS – COMMERCIAL AIR ---
TRANSPORT OPERATIONS
(a) The OM should contain at least the ---
following information, where applicable, as
relevant for the area and type of operation:
A GENERAL/BASIC ---
0 ADMINISTRATION AND CONTROL OF ---
OPERATIONS MANUAL
0.1 Introduction: ---
(a) A statement that the manual complies with
all applicable regulations and with the terms
and conditions of the applicable air operator
certificate (AOC).
(b) A statement that the manual contains
operational instructions that are to be complied
with by the relevant personnel.
(c) A list and brief description of the various
parts, their contents, applicability and use.
(d) Explanations and definitions of terms and
words needed for the use of the manual.
0.2 System of amendment and revision: ---
(a) Details of the person(s) responsible for the
issuance and insertion of amendments and
revisions.
(b) A record of amendments and revisions
with insertion dates and effective dates.
(c) A statement that handwritten amendments
and revisions are not permitted, except in
situations requiring immediate amendment or
revision in the interest of safety.
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(d) A description of the system for the
annotation of pages or paragraphs and their
effective dates.
(e) A list of effective pages or paragraphs.
(f) Annotation of changes (in the text and, as
far as practicable, on charts and diagrams).
(g) Temporary revisions.
(h) A description of the distribution system for
the manuals, amendments and revisions.
1 ORGANISATION AND ---
RESPONSIBILITIES
1.1 Organisational structure. A description of
the organisational structure, including the
general organogram and operations
departments’ organograms. The organogram
should depict the relationship between the
operations departments and the other
departments of the operator. In particular, the
subordination and reporting lines of all
divisions, departments etc, which pertain to the
safety of flight operations, should be shown.
1.2 Nominated persons. The name of each
nominated person responsible for flight
operations, crew training and ground
operations, as prescribed in ORO.AOC.135. A
description of their function and
responsibilities should be included.
1.3 Responsibilities and duties of operations
management personnel. A description of the
duties, responsibilities and authority of
operations management personnel pertaining
to the safety of flight operations and the
compliance with the applicable regulations.
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1.4 Authority, duties and responsibilities of the
pilot-in-command/commander. A statement
defining the authority, duties and
responsibilities of the pilot-in-
command/commander.
1.5 Duties and responsibilities of crew
members other than the pilot-in-
command/commander.
2 OPERATIONAL CONTROL AND ---
SUPERVISION
2.1 Supervision of the operation by the ---
operator. A description of the system for
supervision of the operation by the operator
(see ORO.GEN.110(c)). This should show
how the safety of flight operations and the
qualifications of personnel are supervised. In
particular, the procedures related to the
following items should be described:
(a) licence and qualification validity,
(b) competence of operations personnel,
(c) control, analysis and storage of the required
records.
2.2 System and responsibility for promulgation
of additional operational instructions and
information. A description of any system for
promulgating information which may be of an
operational nature, but which is supplementary
to that in the OM. The applicability of this
information and the responsibilities for its
promulgation should be included.
2.3 Operational control. A description of the
procedures and responsibilities necessary to
exercise operational control with respect to
flight safety.
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2.4 Powers of the authority. A description of
the powers of the competent authority and
guidance to staff on how to facilitate
inspections by authority personnel.
3 MANAGEMENT SYSTEM ---
A description of the management system, ---
including at least the following:
(a) safety policy;
(b) the process for identifying safety hazards
and for evaluating and managing the
associated risks;
(c) compliance monitoring system;
(d) allocation of duties and responsibilities;
(e) documentation of all key management
system processes.
4 CREW COMPOSITION ---
4.1 Crew composition. An explanation of the ---
method for determining crew compositions,
taking account of the following:
(a) the type of aircraft being used;
(b) the area and type of operation being
undertaken;
(c) the phase of the flight;
(d) the minimum crew requirement and flight
duty period planned;
(e) experience (total and on type), recency and
qualification of the crew members;
(f) the designation of the pilot-in-
command/commander and, if necessitated by
the duration of the flight, the procedures for
the relief of the pilot-in-command/commander
or other members of the flight crew. (see
ORO.FC.105);
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(g) the designation of the senior cabin crew
member and, if necessitated by the duration of
the flight, the procedures for the relief of the
senior cabin crew member and any other
member of the cabin crew.
4.2 Designation of the pilot-in-
command/commander. The rules applicable to
the designation of the pilot-in-
command/commander.
4.3 Flight crew incapacitation. Instructions on
the succession of command in the event of
flight crew incapacitation.
4.4 Operation on more than one type. A ---
statement indicating which aircraft are
considered as one type for the purpose of:
(a) flight crew scheduling; and
(b) cabin crew scheduling.
5 QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS ---
5.1 A description of the required licence,
rating(s), qualification/competency (e.g. for
routes and aerodromes), experience, training,
checking and recency for operations personnel
to conduct their duties. Consideration should
be given to the aircraft type, kind of operation
and composition of the crew.
5.2 Flight crew: ---
(a) Pilot-in-command/commander,
(b) Pilot relieving the pilot-in-
command/commander,
(c) Co-pilot,
(d) Pilot relieving the co-pilot,
(e) Pilot under supervision,
(f) System panel operator,
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(g) Operation on more than one type or
variant.
5.3 Cabin crew: ---
(a) Senior cabin crew member,
(b) Cabin crew member: ---
(i) Required cabin crew member,
(ii) Additional cabin crew member and cabin
crew member during familiarisation flights,
(c) Operation on more than one type or
variant.
5.4 Training, checking and supervision ---
personnel:
(a) for flight crew; and
(b) for cabin crew.
5.5 Other operations personnel (including
technical crew and crew members other than
flight, cabin and technical crew).
6 CREW HEALTH PRECAUTIONS ---
6.1 Crew health precautions. The relevant ---
regulations and guidance to crew members
concerning health, including the following:
(a) alcohol and other intoxicating liquids,
(b) narcotics,
(c) drugs,
(d) sleeping tablets,
(e) anti-depressants,
(f) pharmaceutical preparations,
(g) immunisation,
(h) deep-sea diving,
(i) blood/bone marrow donation,
(j) meal precautions prior to and during flight,
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(k) sleep and rest,
(l) surgical operations.
7 FLIGHT TIME LIMITATIONS ---
7.1 Flight and duty time limitations and rest
requirements.
7.2 Exceedance of flight and duty time
limitations and/or reductions of rest periods.
Conditions under which flight and duty time
may be exceeded or rest periods may be
reduced, and the procedures used to report
these modifications.
7.3 A description of the fatigue risk
management, including at least the following:
(a) the philosophy and principles;
(b) documentation of processes;
(c) scientific principles and knowledge;
(d) hazard identification and risk assessment
processes;
(e) risk mitigation process;
(f) FRM safety assurance processes; and
(g) FRM promotion processes.
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8 OPERATING PROCEDURES ---
8.1 Flight preparation instructions. As
applicable to the operation:
8.1.1 Minimum flight altitudes. A description ---
of the method of determination and application
of minimum altitudes including:
(a) a procedure to establish the minimum
altitudes/flight levels for visual flight rules
(VFR) flights; and
(b) a procedure to establish the minimum
altitudes/flight levels for instrument flight
rules (IFR) flights.
8.1.2 Criteria and responsibilities for
determining the adequacy of aerodromes to be
used.
8.1.3 Methods and responsibilities for
establishing aerodrome operating minima.
Reference should be made to procedures for
the determination of the visibility and/or
runway visual range (RVR) and for the
applicability of the actual visibility observed
by the pilots, the reported visibility and the
reported RVR.
8.1.4 En-route operating minima for VFR
flights or VFR portions of a flight and, where
single-engined aircraft are used, instructions
for route selection with respect to the
availability of surfaces that permit a safe
forced landing.
8.1.5 Presentation and application of
aerodrome and en-route operating minima.
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8.1.6 Interpretation of meteorological
information. Explanatory material on the
decoding of meteorological (MET) forecasts
and MET reports relevant to the area of
operations, including the interpretation of
conditional expressions.
8.1.7 Determination of the quantities of fuel,
oil and water methanol carried. The methods
by which the quantities of fuel, oil and water
methanol to be carried are determined and
monitored in-flight. This section should also
include instructions on the measurement and
distribution of the fluid carried on board. Such
instructions should take account of all
circumstances likely to be encountered on the
flight, including the possibility of in-flight re-
planning and of failure of one or more of the
aircraft’s power plants. The system for
maintaining fuel and oil records should also be
described.
8.1.8 Mass and centre of gravity. The general ---
principles of mass and centre of gravity
including the following:
(a) definitions;
(b) methods, procedures and responsibilities
for preparation and acceptance of mass and
centre of gravity calculations;
(c) the policy for using standard and/or actual
masses;
(d) the method for determining the applicable
passenger, baggage and cargo mass;
(e) the applicable passenger and baggage
masses for various types of operations and
aircraft type;
(f) general instructions and information
necessary for verification of the various types
of mass and balance documentation in use;
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(g) last-minute changes procedures;
(h) specific gravity of fuel, oil and water
methanol;
(i) seating policy/procedures;
(j) for helicopter operations, standard load
plans.
8.1.9 Air traffic services (ATS) flight plan.
Procedures and responsibilities for the
preparation and submission of the ATS flight
plan. Factors to be considered include the
means of submission for both individual and
repetitive flight plans.
8.1.10 Operational flight plan. Procedures and
responsibilities for the preparation and
acceptance of the operational flight plan. The
use of the operational flight plan should be
described including samples of the operational
flight plan formats in use.
8.1.11 Operator’s aircraft technical log. The
responsibilities and the use of the operator’s
aircraft technical log should be described,
including samples of the format used.
8.1.12 List of documents, forms and additional
information to be carried.
8.1.13For commercial air transport operations
with single-engined turbine aeroplanes in
instrument meteorological conditions or at
night (CAT SETIMC) approved in accordance
with Subpart L (SET-IMC) of Annex V (Part-
SPA) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012:
(a) the procedure for route selection with
respect to the availability of surfaces, which
permits a safe forced landing;
(b) the instructions for the assessment of
landing sites (elevation, landing direction, and
obstacles in the area); and
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(c) the instructions for the assessment of the
weather conditions at those landing sites.
8.2 Ground handling instructions. As ---
applicable to the operation:
8.2.1 Fuelling procedures. A description of ---
fuelling procedures, including:
(a) safety precautions during refuelling and
defuelling including when an auxiliary power
unit is in operation or when rotors are running
or when an engine is or engines are running
and the prop-brakes are on;
(b) refuelling and defuelling when passengers
are embarking, on board or disembarking; and
(c) precautions to be taken to avoid mixing
fuels.
8.2.2 Aircraft, passengers and cargo handling ---
procedures related to safety. A description of
the handling procedures to be used when
allocating seats, embarking and disembarking
passengers and when loading and unloading
the aircraft. Further procedures, aimed at
achieving safety whilst the aircraft is on the
ramp, should also be given. Handling
procedures should include:
(a) special categories of passengers, including
children/infants, persons with reduced
mobility, inadmissible passengers, deportees
and persons in custody;
(b) permissible size and weight of hand
baggage;
(c) loading and securing of items in the
aircraft;
(d) positioning of ground equipment;
(e) operation of aircraft doors;
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(f) safety on the aerodrome/operating site,
including fire prevention and safety in blast
and suction areas;
(g) start-up, ramp departure and arrival
procedures including, for aeroplanes, push-
back and towing operations;
(h) servicing of aircraft;
(i) documents and forms for aircraft handling;
(j) special loads and classification of load
compartments; and
(k) multiple occupancy of aircraft seats.
8.2.3 Procedures for the refusal of
embarkation. Procedures to ensure that persons
who appear to be intoxicated, or who
demonstrate by manner or physical indications
that they are under the influence of drugs, are
refused embarkation. This does not apply to
medical patients under proper care.
8.2.4 De-icing and anti-icing on the ground. A ---
description of the de-icing and anti-icing
policy and procedures for aircraft on the
ground. These should include descriptions of
the types and effects of icing and other
contaminants on aircraft whilst stationary,
during ground movements and during take-off.
In addition, a description of the fluid types
used should be given, including the following:
(a) proprietary or commercial names,
(b) characteristics,
(c) effects on aircraft performance,
(d) hold-over times,
(e) precautions during usage.
8.3 Flight Procedures: ---
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8.3.1 VFR/IFR Policy. A description of the
policy for allowing flights to be made under
VFR, or for requiring flights to be made under
IFR, or for changing from one to the other.
8.3.2 Navigation Procedures. A description of ---
all navigation procedures, relevant to the
type(s) and area(s) of operation. Special
consideration should be given to:
(a) standard navigational procedures, including
policy for carrying out independent cross-
checks of keyboard entries where these affect
the flight path to be followed by the aircraft;
and
(b) required navigation performance (RNP),
minimum navigation performance
specification (MNPS) and polar navigation
and navigation in other designated areas;
(c) in-flight re-planning;
(d) procedures in the event of system
degradation; and
(e) reduced vertical separation minima
(RVSM), for aeroplanes.
8.3.3 Altimeter setting procedures, including, ---
where appropriate, use of:
(a) metric altimetry and conversion tables; and
(b) QFE operating procedures.
8.3.4 Altitude alerting system procedures for
aeroplanes or audio voice alerting devices for
helicopters.
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8.3.5 Ground proximity warning system
(GPWS)/terrain avoidance warning system
(TAWS), for aeroplanes. Procedures and
instructions required for the avoidance of
controlled flight into terrain, including
limitations on high rate of descent near the
surface (the related training requirements are
covered in OM-D 2.1).
8.3.6 Policy and procedures for the use of
traffic collision avoidance system
(TCAS)/airborne collision avoidance system
(ACAS) for aeroplanes and, when applicable,
for helicopters.
8.3.7 Policy and procedures for in-flight fuel
management.
8.3.8 Adverse and potentially hazardous ---
atmospheric conditions. Procedures for
operating in, and/or avoiding, adverse and
potentially hazardous atmospheric conditions,
including the following:
(a) thunderstorms,
(b) icing conditions,
(c) turbulence,
(d) windshear,
(e) jet stream,
(f) volcanic ash clouds,
(g) heavy precipitation,
(h) sand storms,
(i) mountain waves,
(j) significant temperature inversions.
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8.3.9 Wake turbulence. Wake turbulence
separation criteria, taking into account aircraft
types, wind conditions and runway/final
approach and take-off area (FATO) location.
For helicopters, consideration should also be
given to rotor downwash.
8.3.10 Crew members at their stations. The
requirements for crew members to occupy
their assigned stations or seats during the
different phases of flight or whenever deemed
necessary in the interest of safety and, for
aeroplane operations, including procedures for
controlled rest in the flight crew compartment.
8.3.11 Use of restraint devices for crew and
passengers. The requirements for crew
members and passengers to use safety belts
and/or restraint systems during the different
phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary
in the interest of safety.
8.3.12 Admission to flight crew compartment.
The conditions for the admission to the flight
crew compartment of persons other than the
flight crew. The policy regarding the
admission of inspectors from an authority
should also be included.
8.3.13 Use of vacant crew seats. The
conditions and procedures for the use of
vacant crew seats.
8.3.14 Incapacitation of crew members.
Procedures to be followed in the event of
incapacitation of crew members in-flight.
Examples of the types of incapacitation and
the means for recognising them should be
included.
8.3.15 Cabin Safety Requirements. ---
Procedures:
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(a) covering cabin preparation for flight, in-
flight requirements and preparation for
landing, including procedures for securing the
cabin and galleys;
(b) to ensure that passengers are seated where,
in the event that an emergency evacuation is
required, they may best assist and not hinder
evacuation from the aircraft;
(c) to be followed during passenger
embarkation and disembarkation;
(d) when refuelling/defuelling with passengers
embarking, on board or disembarking;
(e) covering the carriage of special categories
of passengers;
(f) covering smoking on board;
(g) covering the handling of suspected
infectious diseases.
8.3.16 Passenger briefing procedures. The
contents, means and timing of passenger
briefing in accordance with Annex IV (Part-
CAT).
8.3.17 Procedures for aircraft operated
whenever required cosmic or solar radiation
detection equipment is carried.
8.3.18 Policy on the use of autopilot and
autothrottle for aircraft fitted with these
systems.
8.4 Low visibility operations (LVO). A
description of the operational procedures
associated with LVO.
8.5 Extended-range operations with two-
engined aeroplanes (ETOPS). A description of
the ETOPS operational procedures. (Refer to
EASA AMC 20-6)
8.6 Use of the minimum equipment and
configuration deviation list(s).
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8.7 Non-revenue flights. Procedures and ---
limitations, for example, for the following:
(a) non-commercial operations by AOC
holders, a description of the differences to
commercial operations,
(b) training flights,
(c) test flights,
(d) delivery flights,
(e) ferry flights,
(f) demonstration flights,
(g) positioning flights, including the kind of
persons who may be carried on such flights.
8.8 Oxygen Requirements: ---
8.8.1 An explanation of the conditions under
which oxygen should be provided and used.
8.8.2 The oxygen requirements specified for ---
the following persons:
(a) flight crew;
(b) cabin crew;
(c) passengers.
9 DANGEROUS GOODS AND WEAPONS ---
9.1 Information, instructions and general ---
guidance on the transport of dangerous goods,
in accordance with Subpart G of Annex V
(SPA.DG) including:
(a) operator’s policy on the transport of
dangerous goods;
(b) guidance on the requirements for
acceptance, labelling, handling, stowage and
segregation of dangerous goods;
(c) special notification requirements in the
event of an accident or occurrence when
dangerous goods are being carried;
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(d) procedures for responding to emergency
situations involving dangerous goods;
(e) duties of all personnel involved; and
(f) instructions on the carriage of the
operator’s personnel on cargo aircraft when
dangerous goods are being carried.
9.2 The conditions under which weapons,
munitions of war and sporting weapons may
be carried.
10 SECURITY ---
Security instructions, guidance, procedures,
training and responsibilities, taking into
account Regulation (EC) No 300/2008. Some
parts of the security instructions and guidance
may be kept confidential.
11 HANDLING, NOTIFYING AND ---
REPORTING ACCIDENTS, INCIDENTS
AND OCCURRENCES
Procedures for handling, notifying and ---
reporting accidents, incidents and occurrences.
This section should include the following:
(a) definition of accident, incident and
occurrence and of the relevant responsibilities
of all persons involved;
(b) illustrations of forms to be used for
reporting all types of accident, incident and
occurrence (or copies of the forms
themselves), instructions on how they are to be
completed, the addresses to which they should
be sent and the time allowed for this to be
done;
(c) in the event of an accident, descriptions of
which departments, authorities and other
organisations have to be notified, how this will
be done and in what sequence;
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(d) procedures for verbal notification to air
traffic service units of incidents involving
ACAS resolution advisories (RAs), bird
hazards, dangerous goods and hazardous
conditions;
(e) procedures for submitting written reports
on air traffic incidents, ACAS RAs, bird
strikes, dangerous goods incidents or
accidents, and unlawful interference;
(f) reporting procedures. These procedures
should include internal safety-related reporting
procedures to be followed by crew members,
designed to ensure that the pilot-in-
command/commander is informed
immediately of any incident that has
endangered, or may have endangered, safety
during the flight, and that the pilot-in-
command/commander is provided with all
relevant information.
(g) Procedures for the preservation of
recordings following a reportable event.
(1) a full quotation of CAT.GEN.MPA.195(a);
and
(2) instructions and means to prevent
inadvertent reactivation, repair or reinstallation
of the flight recorders by personnel of the
operator or of third parties, and to ensure that
flight recorder recordings are preserved for the
needs of the investigating authority.
(h) Procedures required by
CAT.GEN.MPA.195 for using the CVR
recording or its transcript without prejudice to
Regulation (EU) No 996/210, when
applicable.
12 RULES OF THE AIR ---
(a) Visual and instrument flight rules
(b) Territorial application of the rules of the air
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(c) Communication procedures, including
communication-failure procedures
(d) Information and instructions relating to the
interception of civil aircraft
(e) The circumstances in which a radio
listening watch is to be maintained
(f) Signals
(g) Time system used in operation
(h) ATC clearances, adherence to flight plan
and position reports
(i) Visual signals used to warn an unauthorised
aircraft flying in or about to enter a restricted,
prohibited or danger area
(j) Procedures for flight crew observing an
accident or receiving a distress transmission
(k) The ground/air visual codes for use by
survivors, and description and use of signal
aids
(l) Distress and urgency signals.
13 LEASING / CODE-SHARE ---
A description of the operational arrangements
for leasing and code-share, associated
procedures and management responsibilities.
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B AIRCRAFT OPERATING MATTERS – ---
TYPE RELATED
Taking account of the differences between ---
types/classes, and variants of types, under the
following headings:
0 GENERAL INFORMATION AND UNITS ---
OF MEASUREMENT
0.1 General information (e.g. aircraft
dimensions), including a description of the
units of measurement used for the operation of
the aircraft type concerned and conversion
tables.
1 LIMITATIONS ---
1.1 A description of the certified limitations ---
and the applicable operational limitations
should include the following:
(a) certification status (e.g. EASA
(supplemental) type certificate, environmental
certification, etc.);
(b) passenger seating configuration for each
aircraft type including a pictorial presentation;
(c) types of operation that are approved (e.g.
VFR/IFR, CAT II/III, RNP, flights in known
icing conditions etc.);
(d) crew composition;
(e) mass and centre of gravity;
(f) speed limitations;
(g) flight envelope(s);
(h) wind limits including operations on
contaminated runways;
(i) performance limitations for applicable
configurations;
(j) (runway) slope;
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(k) for aeroplanes, limitations on wet or
contaminated runways;
(l) airframe contamination;
(m) system limitations.
2 NORMAL PROCEDURES ---
The normal procedures and duties assigned to ---
the crew, the appropriate checklists, the system
for their use and a statement covering the
necessary coordination procedures between
flight and cabin/other crew members. The
normal procedures and duties should include
the following:
(a) pre-flight,
(b) pre-departure,
(c) altimeter setting and checking,
(d) taxi, take-off and climb,
(e) noise abatement,
(f) cruise and descent,
(g) approach, landing preparation and briefing,
(h) VFR approach,
(i) IFR approach,
(j) visual approach and circling,
(k) missed approach,
(l) normal landing,
(m) post-landing,
(n) for aeroplanes, operations on wet and
contaminated runways.
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3 ABNORMAL AND/OR EMERGENCY ---
PROCEDURES
The abnormal and/or emergency procedures ---
and duties assigned to the crew, the
appropriate checklists, the system for their use
and a statement covering the necessary
coordination procedures between flight and
cabin/other crew members. The following
abnormal and/or emergency procedures and
duties should include the following:
(a) crew incapacitation,
(b) fire and smoke drills,
(c) for aeroplanes, un-pressurised and partially
pressurised flight,
(d) for aeroplanes, exceeding structural limits
such as overweight landing,
(e) lightning strikes,
(f) distress communications and alerting ATC
to emergencies,
(g) engine/burner failure,
(h) system failures,
(i) guidance for diversion in case of serious
technical failure,
(j) ground proximity warning, including for
helicopters audio voice alerting device
(AVAD) warning,
(k) ACAS/TCAS warning for aeroplanes/audio
voice alerting device (AVAD) warning for
helicopters,
(l) windshear,
(m) emergency landing/ditching,
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(n) for aeroplanes, departure contingency
procedures.
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4 PERFORMANCE ---
4.0 Performance data should be provided in a
form that can be used without difficulty.
4.1 Performance data. Performance material ---
that provides the necessary data for
compliance with the performance requirements
prescribed in Annex IV (Part-CAT). For
aeroplanes, this performance data should be
included to allow the determination of the
following:
(a) take-off climb limits – mass, altitude,
temperature;
(b) take-off field length (for dry, wet and
contaminated runway conditions);
(c) net flight path data for obstacle clearance
calculation or, where applicable, take-off flight
path;
(d) the gradient losses for banked climb-outs;
(e) en-route climb limits;
(f) approach climb limits;
(g) landing climb limits;
(h) landing field length (for dry, wet and
contaminated runway conditions) including the
effects of an in-flight failure of a system or
device, if it affects the landing distance;
(i) brake energy limits;
(j) speeds applicable for the various flight
stages (also considering dry, wet and
contaminated runway conditions).
4.1.1 Supplementary data covering flights in
icing conditions. Any certified performance
related to an allowable configuration, or
configuration deviation, such as anti-skid
inoperative.
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4.1.2 If performance data, as required for the
appropriate performance class, is not available
in the AFM, then other data should be
included. The OM may contain cross-reference
to the data contained in the AFM where such
data is not likely to be used often or in an
emergency.
4.2 Additional performance data for ---
aeroplanes. Additional performance data,
where applicable, including the following:
(a) all engine climb gradients,
(b) drift-down data,
(c) effect of de-icing/anti-icing fluids,
(d) flight with landing gear down,
(e) for aircraft with 3 or more engines, one-
engine-inoperative ferry flights,
(f) flights conducted under the provisions of
the configuration deviation list (CDL).
5 FLIGHT PLANNING ---
5.1 Data and instructions necessary for pre-
flight and in-flight planning including, for
aeroplanes, factors such as speed schedules
and power settings. Where applicable,
procedures for engine(s)-out operations,
ETOPS (particularly the one-engine-
inoperative cruise speed and maximum
distance to an adequate aerodrome determined
in accordance with Annex IV (Part-CAT)) and
flights to isolated aerodromes should be
included.
5.2 The method for calculating fuel needed for
the various stages of flight.
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5.3 When applicable, for aeroplanes, ---
performance data for ETOPS critical fuel
reserve and area of operation, including
sufficient data to support the critical fuel
reserve and area of operation calculation based
on approved aircraft performance data. The
following data should be included:
(a) detailed engine(s)-inoperative performance ---
data including fuel flow for standard and non-
standard atmospheric conditions and as a
function of airspeed and power setting, where
appropriate, covering:
(i) drift down (includes net performance),
where applicable;
(ii) cruise altitude coverage including 10 000
ft;
(iii) holding;
(iv) altitude capability (includes net
performance); and
(v) missed approach;
(b) detailed all-engine-operating performance ---
data, including nominal fuel flow data, for
standard and non-standard atmospheric
conditions and as a function of airspeed and
power setting, where appropriate, covering:
(i) cruise (altitude coverage including 10 000
ft); and
(ii) holding;
(c) details of any other conditions relevant to
ETOPS operations which can cause significant
deterioration of performance, such as ice
accumulation on the unprotected surfaces of
the aircraft, ram air turbine (RAT)
deployment, thrust-reverser deployment, etc.;
and
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(d) the altitudes, airspeeds, thrust settings, and
fuel flow used in establishing the ETOPS area
of operations for each airframe-engine
combination should be used in showing the
corresponding terrain and obstruction
clearances in accordance with Annex IV (Part-
CAT).
6 MASS AND BALANCE ---
Instructions and data for the calculation of the ---
mass and balance including the following:
(a) calculation system (e.g. index system);
(b) information and instructions for
completion of mass and balance
documentation, including manual and
computer generated types;
(c) limiting masses and centre of gravity for
the types, variants or individual aircraft used
by the operator;
(d) dry operating mass and corresponding
centre of gravity or index.
7 LOADING ---
Procedures and provisions for loading and
unloading and securing the load in the aircraft.
8 CONFIGURATION DEVIATION LIST ---
The CDL(s), if provided by the manufacturer,
taking account of the aircraft types and
variants operated including procedures to be
followed when an aircraft is being dispatched
under the terms of its CDL.
9 MINIMUM EQUIPMENT LIST (MEL) ---
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The MEL for each aircraft type or variant
operated and the type(s)/area(s) of operation.
The MEL should also include the dispatch
conditions associated with operations required
for a specific approval (e.g. RNAV, RNP,
RVSM, ETOPS). Consideration should be
given to using the ATA number system when
allocating chapters and numbers.
10 SURVIVAL AND EMERGENCY ---
EQUIPMENT INCLUDING OXYGEN
10.1 A list of the survival equipment to be
carried for the routes to be flown and the
procedures for checking the serviceability of
this equipment prior to take-off. Instructions
regarding the location, accessibility and use of
survival and emergency equipment and its
associated checklist(s) should also be included.
10.2 The procedure for determining the
amount of oxygen required and the quantity
that is available. The flight profile, number of
occupants and possible cabin decompression
should be considered.
11 EMERGENCY EVACUATION ---
PROCEDURES
11.1 Instructions for preparation for
emergency evacuation including crew
coordination and emergency station
assignment.
11.2 Emergency evacuation procedures. A
description of the duties of all members of the
crew for the rapid evacuation of an aircraft and
the handling of the passengers in the event of a
forced landing, ditching or other emergency.
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12 AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS ---
A description of the aircraft systems, related
controls and indications and operating
instructions. Consideration should be given to
use the ATA number system when allocating
chapters and numbers.
C ROUTE/ROLE/AREA AND ---
AERODROME/OPERATING SITE
INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
1 Instructions and information relating to ---
communications, navigation and
aerodromes/operating sites including
minimum flight levels and altitudes for each
route to be flown and operating minima for
each aerodrome/operating site planned to be
used, including the following:
(a) minimum flight level/altitude;
(b) operating minima for departure, destination
and alternate aerodromes;
(c) communication facilities and navigation
aids;
(d) runway/final approach and take-off area
(FATO) data and aerodrome/operating site
facilities;
(e) approach, missed approach and departure
procedures including noise abatement
procedures;
(f) communication-failure procedures;
(g) search and rescue facilities in the area over
which the aircraft is to be flown;
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(h) a description of the aeronautical charts that
should be carried on board in relation to the
type of flight and the route to be flown,
including the method to check their validity;
(i) availability of aeronautical information and
MET services;
(j) en-route communication/navigation
procedures;
(k) aerodrome/operating site categorisation for
flight crew competence qualification;
(l) special aerodrome/operating site limitations
(performance limitations and operating
procedures etc.).
(2) Information related to landing sites
available for operations approved in
accordance with Subpart L (SET-IMC) of
Annex V (Part-SPA) to Regulation (EU) No
965/2012, including:
(a) a description of the landing site (position,
surface, slope, elevation, etc.);
(b) the preferred landing direction; and
(c) obstacles in the area
D TRAINING ---
1 Description of scope: Training syllabi and
checking programmes for all operations
personnel assigned to operational duties in
connection with the preparation and/or
conduct of a flight.
2 Content: Training syllabi and checking ---
programmes should include the following:
2.1 for flight crew, all relevant items
prescribed in Annex IV (Part-CAT), Annex V
(Part-SPA) and ORO.FC;
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2.2 for cabin crew, all relevant items
prescribed in Annex IV (Part-CAT), Annex V
(Part-CC) of Commission Regulation (EU)
xxx/XXXX and ORO.CC;
2.3 for technical crew, all relevant items
prescribed in Annex IV (Part-CAT), Annex V
(Part-SPA) and ORO.TC;
2.4 for operations personnel concerned, ---
including crew members:
(a) all relevant items prescribed in SPA.DG
Subpart G of Annex IV (SPA.DG); and
(b) all relevant items prescribed in Annex IV
(Part-CAT) and ORO.SEC; and
2.5 for operations personnel other than crew
members (e.g. dispatcher, handling personnel
etc.), all other relevant items prescribed in
Annex IV (Part-CAT) and in this Annex
pertaining to their duties.
3 Procedures: ---
3.1 Procedures for training and checking.
3.2 Procedures to be applied in the event that
personnel do not achieve or maintain the
required standards.
3.3 Procedures to ensure that abnormal or
emergency situations requiring the application
of part or all of the abnormal or emergency
procedures, and simulation of instrument
meteorological conditions (IMC) by artificial
means are not simulated during commercial air
transport operations.
4 Description of documentation to be stored
and storage periods.
(b) Notwithstanding (a), an OM that is
compiled in accordance with JAR-OPS 3
amendment 5 may be considered to be
compliant.
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(c) If there are sections that, because of the
nature of the operation, do not apply, it is
recommended that operators maintain the
numbering system described in
ORO.MLR.101 and above and insert ‘Not
applicable’ or ‘Intentionally blank’ where
appropriate.
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KINNITATUD
Lennuameti peadirektori
03.07.2017
käskkirjaga nr 1.1-1/17/144
Lisa 1
965/2012 Annex III - PART-CAT
OPERATOR: ____________________________________________________
AOC # ________________________________________________________________
Ind.No. ________________________________________________________________
This compliance list has been checked (date): ____________________________________________________
This compliance list has been checked (name): ____________________________________________________
This compliance list is a tool not replacing the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules. The user must read and
check the items in accordance with the Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules. In case any error or deficiency is found in this list, it should
be notified to the Authority to make the required corrections. All suggestions or corrections to this compliance list will be considered for improving and
developing the list, and to make it more usable for the Operator and the Authority.
CONTENTS of Operation Manuals
The content of OM should be in accordance with AMC 3 ORO.MLR.100, where applicable, as relevant for the area and type of operation. If there are
sections that, because of the nature of the operation, do not apply, it is recommended that operators maintain the numbering system described in
ORO.MLR.101 and AMC3 ORO.MLR.100 and insert ‘Not applicable’ or ‘Intentionally blank’ where appropriate. [AMC and GM to Annex III Part ORO:
GM1 ORO.MLR.100].
As for OM-A and OM-B, main titles must be in accordance with AMC3 ORO.MLR.100. For example: OM-A 12: Rules of the air.
The correlation between Rule References and the Operations Manuals shall be entered in the column OM/Document Reference.
If the required information is not included in the OM but in other document (for example requirements set down in 965/2012 Subpart D: Instruments, Data,
Equipment) put reference to the relevant document column OM/Document Reference.
If a Rule References paragraph is not applicable to the Operator, N/A should be marked to column STATUS by the operator.
The column STATUS is for the Authority to note when the applicable part of OM is in accordance with the requirements.(OK/NO)
The column COMMENTS is for user notes and declarations if needed.
Compliance checklist includes requirements for both commercial air transport operations with aeroplanes and helicopters.
All applicable paragraphs in this compliance list should have either an OM reference or N/A, if not applicable.
There is a cross reference table which contains the provisions of the new Regulation on Air Operations – Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 - and the
corresponding ones of EU-OPS and TGL 44 as well as JAR-OPS 3 (amendment 5), Section 1 and Section 2. One can find this tool from Flight Standards
Website.
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965/2012 ---
ANNEX IV ---
COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT ---
OPERATIONS
---
[PART-CAT] ---
---
SUBPART A ---
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ---
CAT.GEN.100 Competent authority The competent authority shall be the authority ---
designated by the Member State in which the
operator has its principal place of business.
SECTION 1 ---
Motor-powered aircraft ---
CAT.GEN.MPA.100 Crew (a) The crew member shall be responsible for ---
responsibilities the proper execution of his/her duties that are:
- GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.100(c)(2)
(1) related to the safety of the aircraft and its
occupants; and
(2) specified in the instructions and procedures
in the operations manual.
(b) The crew member shall: ---
(1) report to the commander any fault, failure,
malfunction or defect which the crew member
believes may affect the airworthiness or safe
operation of the aircraft including emergency
systems, if not already reported by another
crew member;
(2) report to the commander any incident that
endangered, or could have endangered, the
safety of the operation, if not already reported
by another crew member;
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(3) comply with the relevant requirements of
the operator’s occurrence reporting schemes;
(4) comply with all flight and duty time
limitations (FTL) and rest requirements
applicable to their activities;
(5) when undertaking duties for more than one ---
operator:
(i) maintain his/her individual records
regarding flight and duty times and rest periods
as referred to in applicable FTL requirements;
and
(ii) provide each operator with the data needed
to schedule activities in accordance with the
applicable FTL requirements.
(c) The crew member shall not perform duties ---
on an aircraft:
(1) when under the influence of psychoactive
substances or alcohol or when unfit due to
injury, fatigue, medication, sickness or other
similar causes;
(2) until a reasonable time period has elapsed
after deep water diving or following blood
donation;
(3) if applicable medical requirements are not
fulfilled;
(4) if he/she is in any doubt of being able to
accomplish his/her assigned duties; or
(5) if he/she knows or suspects that he/she is
suffering from fatigue as referred to in 7.f of
Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 or
feels otherwise unfit, to the extent that the
flight may be endangered.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.100(b) Crew ---
responsibilities
COPIES OF REPORTS ---
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Where a written report is required, a copy of
the report should be communicated to the
commander concerned, unless the terms of the
operator’s reporting schemes prevent this.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.100(c)(1) Crew ---
responsibilities
ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION ---
The operator should issue instructions ---
concerning the consumption of alcohol by crew
members. The instructions should be not less
restrictive than the following:
(a) no alcohol should be consumed less than 8
hours prior to the specified reporting time for a
flight duty period or the commencement of
standby;
(b) the blood alcohol level should not exceed
the lower of the national requirements or 0.2
per thousand at the start of a flight duty period;
(c) no alcohol should be consumed during the
flight duty period or whilst on standby.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.100(c)(2) Crew
responsibilities
ELAPSED TIME BEFORE RETURNING
TO FLYING DUTY
24 hours is a suitable minimum length of time
to allow after normal blood donation or normal
recreational (sport) diving before returning to
flying duties. This should be considered by
operators when determining a reasonable time
period for the guidance of crew members.
PART-MED Information on the effects of
medication, drugs, other treatments and alcohol
can be found in Annex IV (Part-MED) to
Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/20111 .
CAT.GEN.MPA.105 Responsibilities of (a) The commander, in addition to complying ---
the commander with CAT.GEN.MPA.100, shall:
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(1) be responsible for the safety of all crew
members, passengers and cargo on board, as
soon as the commander arrives on board the
aircraft, until the commander leaves the aircraft
at the end of the flight;
(2) be responsible for the operation and safety ---
of the aircraft:
(i) for aeroplanes, from the moment the
aeroplane is first ready to move for the purpose
of taxiing prior to take-off, until the moment it
finally comes to rest at the end of the flight and
the engine(s) used as primary propulsion unit(s)
is(are) shut down;
(ii) for helicopters, when the rotors are turning;
(3) have authority to give all commands and
take any appropriate actions for the purpose of
securing the safety of the aircraft and of
persons and/or property carried therein in
accordance with 7.c of Annex IV to Regulation
(EC) No 216/2008;
(4) have authority to disembark any person, or
any part of the cargo, that may represent a
potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft or
its occupants;
(5) not allow a person to be carried in the
aircraft who appears to be under the influence
of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety
of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be
endangered;
(6) have the right to refuse transportation of
inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons
in custody if their carriage increases the risk to
the safety of the aircraft or its occupants;
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(7) ensure that all passengers are briefed on the
location of emergency exits and the location
and use of relevant safety and emergency
equipment;
(8) ensure that all operational procedures and
checklists are complied with in accordance with
the operations manual;
(9) not permit any crew member to perform any
activity during critical phases of flight, except
duties required for the safe operation of the
aircraft;
(10) ensure that flight recorders: ---
(i) are not disabled or switched off during
flight; and
(ii) in the event of an accident or an incident ---
that is subject to mandatory reporting:
(A) are not intentionally erased;
(B) are deactivated immediately after the flight
is completed; and
(C) are reactivated only with the agreement of
the investigating authority;
(11) decide on acceptance of the aircraft with
unserviceabilities in accordance with the
configuration deviation list (CDL) or the
minimum equipment list (MEL);
(12) ensure that the pre-flight inspection has
been carried out in accordance with the
requirements of Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation
(EC) No 2042/2003;
(13) be satisfied that relevant emergency
equipment remains easily accessible for
immediate use.
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(b) The commander, or the pilot to whom
conduct of the flight has been delegated, shall,
in an emergency situation that requires
immediate decision and action, take any action
he/she considers necessary under the
circumstances in accordance with 7.d of Annex
IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. In such
cases he/she may deviate from rules,
operational procedures and methods in the
interest of safety.
(c) Whenever an aircraft in flight has
manoeuvred in response to an airborne collision
avoidance system (ACAS) resolution advisory
(RA), the commander shall submit an ACAS
report to the competent authority.
(d) Bird hazards and strikes: ---
(1) Whenever a potential bird hazard is
observed, the commander shall inform the air
traffic service (ATS) unit as soon as flight crew
workload allows.
(2) Whenever an aircraft for which the
commander is responsible suffers a bird strike
that results in significant damage to the aircraft
or the loss or malfunction of any essential
service, the commander shall submit a written
bird strike report after landing to the competent
authority.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.105(a)(10)
Responsibilities of the commander
IDENTIFICATION OF THE SEVERITY The definitions of an accident and a serious
OF AN OCCURRENCE BY THE incident as well as examples thereof can be
COMMANDER found in Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the
European Parliament and of the Council.
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CAT.GEN.MPA.110 Authority of the The operator shall take all reasonable measures
commander to ensure that all persons carried in the aircraft
obey all lawful commands given by the
commander for the purpose of securing the
safety of the aircraft and of persons or property
carried therein.
CAT.GEN.MPA.115 Personnel or crew The operator shall ensure that personnel or ---
members other than cabin crew in the crew members, other than operating cabin crew
passenger compartment members, carrying out their duties in the
passenger compartment of an aircraft:
- GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.115
(a) are not confused by the passengers with
operating cabin crew members;
(b) do not occupy required cabin crew assigned
stations;
(c) do not impede operating cabin crew
members in their duties.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.115(a) Personnel ---
or crew members other than cabin crew
in the passenger compartment
MEASURES TO PREVENT CONFUSION ---
BY PASSENGERS
If personnel or crew members other than
operating cabin crew members carry out duties
in a passenger compartment, the operator
should ensure that they do not perform tasks or
wear a uniform in such a way that might
identify them as members of the operating
cabin crew.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.115 Personnel or
crew members other than cabin crew in
the passenger compartment
POSITIONING CABIN CREW MEMBERS
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To prevent confusion by passengers and undue
expectations in case of emergency, positioning
cabin crew members should not wear, or should
at least make invisible to passengers, parts of
the operator’s cabin crew uniform, such as
main jacket or crew signs or badges, that might
identify them as members of the operating
cabin crew.
CAT.GEN.MPA.120 Common language The operator shall ensure that all crew
members can communicate with each other in a
common language.
CAT.GEN.MPA.124 Taxiing of aircraft The operator shall establish procedures for
taxiing of aircraft in order to ensure safe
operation and in order to enhance runway
safety.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.124 Taxiing of
aircraft
PROCEDURES FOR TAXIING
Procedures for taxiing should include at least
the following:
(a) application of the sterile flight crew
compartment procedures;
(b) use of standard radio-telephony (RTF)
phraseology;
(c) use of lights;
(d) measures to enhance the situational
awareness of the minimum required flight crew
members. The following list of typical items
should be adapted by the operator to take into
account its operational environment:
(1) each flight crew member should have the
necessary aerodrome layout charts available;
(2) the pilot taxiing the aircraft should
announce in advance his/her intentions to the
pilot monitoring;
(3) all taxi clearances should be heard and
should be understood by each flight crew
member;
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(4) all taxi clearances should be cross-checked
against the aerodrome chart and aerodrome
surface markings, signs, and lights;
(5) an aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area
should stop and hold at all lighted stop bars,
and may proceed further when an explicit
clearance to enter or cross the runway has been
issued by the aerodrome control tower, and
when the stop bar lights are switched off;
(6) if the pilot taxiing the aircraft is unsure of
his/her position, he/she should stop the aircraft
and contact air traffic control;
(7) the pilot monitoring should monitor the taxi
progress and adherence to the clearances, and
should assist the pilot taxiing;
(8) any action which may disturb the flight
crew from the taxi activity should be avoided or
done with the parking brake set (e.g.
announcements by public address);
(e) subparagraphs (d)(2) and (d)(7) are not
applicable to single-pilot operations.
CAT.GEN.MPA.125 Taxiing of The operator shall ensure that an aeroplane is ---
aeroplanes only taxied on the movement area of an
aerodrome if the person at the controls:
(a) is an appropriately qualified pilot; or
(b) has been designated by the operator and: ---
(1) is trained to taxi the aircraft;
(2) is trained to use the radio telephone;
(3) has received instruction in respect of
aerodrome layout, routes, signs, marking,
lights, air traffic control (ATC) signals and
instructions, phraseology and procedures;
(4) is able to conform to the operational
standards required for safe aeroplane
movement at the aerodrome.
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GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.125 Taxiing of
aeroplanes
SKILLS AND KNOWLEDGE The following skills and knowledge may be
assessed to check if a person can be authorised
by the operator to taxi an aeroplane:
(a) positioning of the aeroplane to ensure safety
when starting engine;
(b) getting ATIS reports and taxi clearance,
where applicable;
(c) interpretation of airfield
markings/lights/signals/indicators;
(d) interpretation of marshalling signals, where
applicable;
(e) identification of suitable parking area;
(f) maintaining lookout and right-of-way rules
and complying with air traffic control (ATC) or
marshalling instructions, when applicable;
(g) avoidance of adverse effect of propeller
slipstream or jet wash on other aeroplanes,
aerodrome facilities and personnel;
(h) inspection of taxi path when surface
conditions are obscured;
(i) communication with others when controlling
an aeroplane on the ground;
(j) interpretation of operational instructions;
(k) reporting of any problem that may occur
while taxiing an aeroplane; and
(l) adapting the taxi speed in accordance with
prevailing aerodrome, traffic, surface and
weather conditions.
GM2 CAT.GEN.MPA.125 Taxiing of
aeroplanes
SAFETY-CRITICAL ACTIVITY (a) Taxiing should be treated as a safety-critical
activity due to the risks related to the
movement of the aeroplane and the potential
for a catastrophic event on the ground.
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(b) Taxiing is a high-workload phase of flight
that requires the full attention of the flight
crew.
CAT.GEN.MPA.130 Rotor engagement A helicopter rotor shall only be turned under
— helicopters power for the purpose of flight with a qualified
pilot at the controls.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.130 Rotor
engagement — helicopters
INTENT OF THE RULE (a) The following two situations where it is
allowed to turn the rotor under power should be
distinguished:
(1) for the purpose of flight, this is described in
the Implementing Rule;
(2) for maintenance purposes.
(b) Rotor engagement for the purpose of flight:
the pilot should not leave the control when the
rotors are turning. For example, the pilot is not
allowed to get out of the aircraft in order to
welcome passengers and adjust their seat belts
with the rotors turning.
(c) Rotor engagement for the purpose of
maintenance: the Implementing Rule, however,
does not prevent ground runs being conducted
by qualified personnel other than pilots for
maintenance purposes.
The following conditions should be applied:
(1) the operator should ensure that the
qualification of personnel, other than pilots,
who are authorised to conduct maintenance
runs is described in the appropriate manual;
(2) ground runs should not include taxiing the
helicopter;
(3) there should be no passengers on board; and
(4) maintenance runs should not include
collective increase or autopilot engagement
(due to the risk of ground resonance).
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CAT.GEN.MPA.135 Admission to the (a) The operator shall ensure that no person, ---
flight crew compartment other than a flight crew member assigned to a
flight, is admitted to, or carried in, the flight
crew compartment unless that person is:
(1) an operating crew member;
(2) a representative of the competent or
inspecting authority, if required to be there for
the performance of his/her official duties; or
(3) permitted by and carried in accordance with
instructions contained in the operations manual.
(b) The commander shall ensure that: ---
(1) admission to the flight crew compartment
does not cause distraction or interference with
the operation of the flight; and
(2) all persons carried in the flight crew
compartment are made familiar with the
relevant safety procedures.
(c) The commander shall make the final
decision regarding the admission to the flight
crew compartment.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.135(a)(3) ---
Admission to the flight crew
compartment
INSTRUCTIONS FOR SINGLE-PILOT ---
OPERATIONS UNDER VFR BY DAY
Where an aircraft is used in a single-pilot ---
operation under visual flight rules (VFR) by
day but has more than one pilot station, the
instructions of the operator may permit
passengers to be carried in the unoccupied pilot
seat(s), provided that the commander is
satisfied that:
(a) it will not cause distraction or interference
with the operation of the flight; and
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(b) the passenger occupying a pilot seat is
familiar with the relevant restrictions and safety
procedures.
CAT.GEN.MPA.140 Portable electronic The operator shall not permit any person to use
devices a portable electronic device (PED) on board an
aircraft that could adversely affect the
- GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.140 performance of the aircraft’s systems and
- GM2 CAT.GEN.MPA.140 equipment, and shall take all reasonable
- GM3 CAT.GEN.MPA.140 measures to prevent such use.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.140 Portable ---
electronic devices
TECHNICAL PREREQUISITES FOR THE ---
USE OF PEDS
(a) Scope ---
This AMC describes the technical prerequisites
under which any kind of portable electronic
device (PED) may be used on board the aircraft
without adversely affecting the performance of
the aircraft’s systems and equipment.
(b) Prerequisites concerning the aircraft ---
configuration
(1) Before an operator may permit the use of ---
any kind of PED on-board, it should ensure that
PEDs have no impact on the safe operation of
the aircraft. The operator should demonstrate
that PEDs do not interfere with on-board
electronic systems and equipment, especially
with the aircraft’s navigation and
communication systems.
(2) The assessment of PED tolerance may be
tailored to the different aircraft zones for which
the use of PEDs is considered, i.e. may address
separately:
(i) the passenger compartment; ---
(ii) the flight crew compartment; and
(iii) areas not accessible during the flight. ---
(c) Scenarios for permitting the use of PEDs
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(1) Possible scenarios, under which the
operator may permit the use of PEDs, should be
as documented in Table 1. The scenarios in
Table 1 are listed in a descending order with
the least permitting scenario at the bottom.
(2) Restrictions arising from the corresponding
aircraft certification, as documented in the
aircraft flight manual (AFM) or equivalent
document(s), should stay in force. They may be
linked to different aircraft zones, or to
particular transmitting technologies covered.
(3) For Scenarios Nos. 3 to 8 in Table 1 of the
regualtion the use of C-PEDs and cargo
tracking devices may be further expanded,
when the EMI assessment has demonstrated
that there is no impact on safety as follows:
(i) for C-PEDs by using the method described
in (d)(2); and
(ii) for cargo tracking devices by using the ---
method described in (d)(3).
(d) Demonstration of electromagnetic
compatibility
(1) EMI assessment at aircraft level
The means to demonstrate that the radio
frequency (RF) emissions (intentional or
nonintentional) are tolerated by aircraft systems
should be as follows:
(i) to address front door coupling susceptibility
for any kind of PEDs:
(A) RTCA, ‘Guidance on allowing transmitting ---
portable, electronic devices (T-PEDs) on
aircraft’, DO-294C (or later revisions),
Appendix 5C; or
(B) RTCA, ‘Aircraft design and certification
for portable electronic device (PED)
tolerance’, DO-307 (including Change 1 or
later revisions), Section 4; and
(ii) to address back door coupling susceptibility
for T-PEDs:
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(A) EUROCAE, ‘Guidance for the use of
portable electronic devices (PEDs) on board
aircraft’, ED-130 (or later revisions), Annex 6;
(B) RTCA DO-294C (or later revisions),
Appendix 6D; or
(C) RTCA DO-307 (including Change 1 or
later revisions), Section 3.
(2) Alternative EMI assessment of C-PEDs
(i) For front door coupling:
(A) C-PEDs should comply with the levels as
defined by:
(a) EUROCAE/RTCA, ‘Environmental
conditions and test procedures for airborne
equipment’, ED-14D/DO-160D (or later
revisions), Section 21, Category M, for
operation in the passenger compartment and the
flight crew compartment; and
(b) EUROCAE ED-14E/RTCA DO-160E (or
later revisions), Section 21, Category H, for
operation in areas not accessible during the
flight.
(B) If the C-PEDs are electronic flight bags ---
used in the flight crew compartment, an
alternative compliance method described in
EASA, ‘General acceptable means of
compliance for airworthiness of products, part
and appliances’, AMC-20, AMC 20-25
(‘Airworthiness and operational considerations
for electronic flight bags’), may be used.
(ii) For back door coupling the EMI assessment ---
described in (1)(ii) should be performed.
(3) Alternative EMI assessment of cargo
tracking devices In case a transmitting function
is automatically deactivated in a cargo tracking
device (being a T-PED), the unit should be
qualified for safe operation on board the
aircraft. One of the following methods should
be considered acceptable as evidence for safe
operation:
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(i) A type-specific safety assessment, including
failure mode and effects analysis, has been
performed at aircraft level. The main purpose
of the assessment should be to determine the
worst hazards and to demonstrate an adequate
design assurance level of the relevant hardware
and software components of the cargo tracking
device.
(ii) The high intensity radiated field (HIRF)
certification of the aircraft has been performed,
i.e. the aircraft type has been certified after
1987 and meets the appropriate special
condition. In such a case, the operator should
observe the following:
(A) The tracking device:
(a) features an automated and prolonged radio
suspension in flight using multiple modes of
redundancy; and
(b) has been verified in the aircraft environment
to ensure deactivation of the transmitting
function in flight.
(B) The transmissions of the tracking device
are limited per design to short periods of time
(less than 1 second per 1 000 seconds) and
cannot be continuous.
(C) The tracking device emissions should
comply with the levels as defined by
EUROCAE ED-14E/RTCA DO-160E (or later
revisions), Section 21, Category H.
(D) In order to provide assurance on the ---
tracking device design and production, the
following documents are retained as part of the
evaluation package:
(a) operational description, technical ---
specifications, product label and images of the
tracking device and any peripheral attachments;
(b) failure mode and effects analysis report of
the tracking device and any
peripheral attachments;.
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(c) declaration of stringent design and
production controls in place during the tracking
device manufacturing;
(d) declaration of conformity and technical
documentation showing compliance to the
European Norms (EN), regulating the
transmitter characteristic of the tracking device
or its transmission module; and
(e) an EMI assessment report documenting the
emission levels.
(iii) The tracking device interference levels
during transmission are below those considered
acceptable for the specific aircraft environment.
(e) Operational conditions of C-PEDs and
cargo tracking devices
The operator should ensure that C-PEDs and
cargo tracking devices are maintained in good
and safe condition, having in mind that:
(1) damage may modify their emissions
characteristics; and
(2) damage to the battery may create a fire
hazard.
(f) Batteries in C-PEDs and cargo tracking
devices
Lithium-type batteries in C-PEDs and cargo
tracking devices should meet:
(1) United Nations (UN) Transportation
Regulations, ‘Recommendations on the
transport of dangerous goods - manual of tests
and criteria’, UN ST/SG/AC.10/11; and
(2) one of the following standards:
(i) Underwriters Laboratory, ‘Lithium
batteries’, UL 1642;
(ii) Underwriters Laboratory, ‘Household and
commercial batteries’, UL 2054;
(iii) Underwriters Laboratory, ‘Information
technology equipment – safety’, UL 60950-1;
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(iv) International Electrotechnical Commission
(IEC), ‘Secondary cells and batteries containing
alkaline or other non-acid electrolytes - safety
requirements for portable sealed secondary
cells, and for batteries made from them, for use
in portable applications’, IEC 62133;
(v) RTCA, ‘Minimum operational performance
standards for rechargeable lithium battery
systems’, DO-311. RTCA DO-311 may be used
to address concerns regarding overcharging,
over-discharging, and the flammability of cell
components. The standard is intended to test
permanently installed equipment; however,
these tests are applicable and sufficient to test
electronic flight bags rechargeable lithium-type
batteries; or
(vi) European Technical Standard Order
(ETSO), ‘Non-rechargeable lithium cells and
batteries’, ETSO C142a.
AMC2 CAT.GEN.MPA.140 Portable
electronic devices
PROCEDURES FOR THE USE OF PEDS
(a) Scope
This AMC describes the procedures under
which any kind of portable electronic device
(PED) may be used on board the aircraft
without adversely affecting the performance of
the aircraft’s systems and equipment. This
AMC addresses the operation of PEDs in the
different aircraft zones — passenger
compartment, flight compartment, and areas
inaccessible during the flight.
(b) Prerequisites
Before permitting the use of any kind of PEDs
the operator should ensure compliance with (c)
of AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.140.
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(c) Hazard identification and risk assessment
The operator should identify the safety hazards
and manage the associated risks following the
management system implemented in
accordance with ORO.GEN.200. The risk
assessment should include hazards associated
with:
(1) PEDs in different aircraft zones;
(2) PED use during various phases of flight;
(3) PED use during turbulence;
(4) improperly stowed PEDs;
(5) impeded or slowed evacuations;
(6) passenger non-compliance, e.g. not
deactivating transmitting functions, not
switching off PEDs or not stowing PEDs
properly;
(7) disruptive passengers; and
(8) battery fire.
(d) Use of PEDs in the passenger compartment
(1) Procedures and training
If an operator permits passengers to use PEDs
on board its aircraft, procedures should be in
place to control their use. These procedures
should include provisions for passenger
briefing, passenger handling and for the
stowage of PEDs. The operator should ensure
that all crew members and ground personnel
are trained to enforce possible restrictions
concerning the use of PEDs, in line with these
procedures.
(2) Provisions for use
(i) The use of PEDs in the passenger
compartment may be granted under the
responsibility of the operator, i.e. the operator
decides which PED may be used during which
phases of the flight.
(ii) Notwithstanding (b), medical equipment
necessary to support physiological functions
may be used at all times and does not need to
be switched-off.
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(3) Stowage, passenger information and
passenger briefing of PEDs
(i) In accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.160 the
operator should establish procedures
concerning the stowage of PEDs. The operator
should:
(A) identify the phases of flight in which PEDs
are to be stowed; and
(B) determine suitable stowage locations,
taking into account the PEDs’ size and weight.
(ii) The operator should provide general
information on the use of PEDs to the
passengers before the flight. This information
should specify at least:
(A) which PEDs can be used during which
phases of the flight;
(B) when and where PEDs are to be stowed;
and
(C) that the instructions of the crew are to be
followed at all times.
(iii) In accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.170, the
use of PEDs should be part of the passenger
briefings. The operator should remind
passengers to pay attention and to avoid
distraction during such briefings.
(4) In-seat electrical power supplies
Where in-seat electrical power supplies are
available for passenger use, the following
should apply:
(i) information giving safety instructions should
be provided to the passengers;
(ii) PEDs should be disconnected from any in-
seat electrical power supply during taxiing,
take-off, approach, landing, and during
abnormal or emergency conditions; and
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(iii) flight crew, cabin crew and technical crew
should be aware of the proper means to
switch-off in-seat power supplies used for
PEDs.
(5) Operator’s safety measures during boarding
and any phase of flight
(i) Appropriate coordination between flight
crew, cabin crew and technical crew should be
established to deal with interference or other
safety problems associated with PEDs.
(ii) Suspect equipment should be switched off.
(iii) Particular attention should be given to
passenger misuse of equipment.
(iv) Thermal runaways of batteries, in
particular lithium batteries, and potential
resulting fire, should be handled properly.
(v) The commander may, for any reason and
during any phase of flight, require deactivation
and stowage of PEDs.
(vi) When the operator restricts the use of
PEDs, consideration should be given to handle
special requests to operate a T-PED during any
phase of the flight for specific reasons (e.g. for
security measures).
(6) Reporting
Occurrences of suspected or confirmed
interference should be reported to the
competent authority. Where possible, to assist
follow-up and technical investigation, reports
should describe the suspected device, identify
the brand name and model number, its location
in the aircraft at the time of the occurrence,
interference symptoms, the device user’s
contact details and the results of actions taken
by the crew.
(e) Use of PEDs in the flight crew compartment
In the flight crew compartment the operator
may permit the use of PEDs, e.g. to assist the
flight crew in their duties, when procedures are
in place to ensure the following:
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(1) The conditions for the use of PEDs in-flight
are specified in the operations manual.
(2) The PEDs do not pose a loose item risk or
other hazard.
(3) These provisions should not preclude use of
a T-PED (specifically a mobile phone) by the
flight crew to deal with an emergency.
However, reliance should not be predicated on
a T-PED for this purpose.
(f) PEDs not accessible during the flight
PEDs should be switched off, when not
accessible for deactivation during flight. This
should apply especially to PEDs contained in
baggage or transported as part of the cargo. The
operator may permit deviation for PEDs for
which safe operation has been demonstrated in
accordance with AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.140.
Other precautions, such as transporting in
shielded metal boxes, may also be used to
mitigate associated risks.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.140 Portable
electronic devices
DEFINITIONS (a) Definition and categories of PEDs PEDs are
any kind of electronic device, typically but not
limited to consumer electronics, brought on
board the aircraft by crew members,
passengers, or as part of the cargo and that are
not included in the approved aircraft
configuration. All equipment that is able to
consume electrical energy falls under this
definition. The electrical energy can be
provided from internal sources as batteries
(chargeable or non-rechargeable) or the devices
may also be connected to specific aircraft
power sources.
PEDs include the following two categories:
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(1) Non-intentional transmitters can non-
intentionally radiate RF transmissions,
sometimes referred to as spurious emissions.
This category includes, but is not limited to,
calculators, cameras, radio receivers, audio and
video players, electronic games and toys; when
these devices are not equipped with a
transmitting function.
(2) Intentional transmitters radiate RF
transmissions on specific frequencies as part of
their intended function. In addition, they may
radiate non-intentional transmissions like any
PED. The term ‘transmitting PED’ (T-PED) is
used to identify the transmitting capability of
the PED. Intentional transmitters are
transmitting devices such as RF-based remote
control equipment, which may include some
toys, two-way radios (sometimes referred to as
‘private mobile radio’), mobile phones of any
type, satellite phones, computers with mobile
Regulation (EU) 965/2012 on air operations
Annex IV – Part-CAT CAT.GEN.MPA I R , A
M C , G M Page 18 | May 2017 phone data
connection, wireless local area network
(WLAN) or Bluetooth capability. After
deactivation of the transmitting capability, e.g.
by activating the so-called ‘flight mode’ or
‘flight safety mode’, the T-PED remains a PED
having non-intentional emissions.
(b) Controlled PEDs (C-PEDs) A controlled
PED (C-PED) is a PED subject to
administrative control by the operator using it.
This will include, inter alia, tracking the
allocation of the devices to specific aircraft or
persons and ensuring that no unauthorised
changes are made to the hardware, software or
databases. C-PEDs can be assigned to the
category of non-intentional transmitters or T-
PEDs.
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(c) Cargo tracking device A cargo tracking
device is a PED attached to or included in
airfreight (e.g. in or on containers, pallets,
parcels or baggage). Cargo tracking devices can
be assigned to the category of nonintentional
transmitters or T-PEDs. If the device is a T-
PED, it complies with the European Norms
(EN) for transmissions.
(d) Definition of the switched-off status Many
PEDs are not completely disconnected from the
internal power source when switched off. The
switching function may leave some remaining
functionality e.g. data storage, timer, clock, etc.
These devices can be considered switched off
when in the deactivated status. The same
applies to devices having no transmitting
capability and are operated by coin cells
without further deactivation capability, e.g.
wrist watches
(e) Electromagnetic interference (EMI) The
two classes of EMI to be addressed can be
described as follows:
(1) Front door coupling is the possible
disturbance to an aircraft system as received by
the antenna of the system and mainly in the
frequency band used by the system. Any PED
internal oscillation has the potential to radiate
low level signals in the aviation frequency
bands. Through this disturbance especially the
instrument landing system (ILS) and the VHF
omni range (VOR) navigation system may
indicate erroneous information.
(2) Back door coupling is the possible
disturbance of aircraft systems by
electromagnetic fields generated by transmitters
at a level which could exceed on short distance
(i.e. within the aircraft) the electromagnetic
field level used for the aircraft system
certification. This disturbance may then lead to
system malfunction.
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GM2 CAT.GEN.MPA.140 Portable
electronic devices
CREW REST COMPARTMENT, (a) When the aircraft is equipped with a crew
NAVIGATION, TEST ENTITIES AND rest compartment, it is considered being part of
FIRE CAUSED BY PEDS the passenger compartment.
(b) Front door coupling may influence the VOR
navigation system. Therefore, the flight crew
monitors other navigation sensors to detect
potential disturbances by PEDs, especially
during low visibility departure operation based
on VOR guidance.
(c) Specific equipment, knowledge and
experience are required, when the industry
standards for evaluating technical prerequisites
for the use of PEDs are applied. In order to
ensure conformity with the industry standards,
the operator is encouraged to cooperate with an
appropriately qualified and experienced entity,
as necessary. For this entity an aviation
background is not required, but is considered to
be beneficial.
(d) Guidance to follow in case of fire caused by
PEDs is provided by the International Civil
Aviation Organisation, ‘Emergency response
guidance for aircraft incidents involving
dangerous goods’, ICAO Doc 9481-AN/928.
GM3 CAT.GEN.MPA.140 Portable
electronic devices
CARGO TRACKING DEVICES (a) Safety assessment Further guidance on
EVALUATION performing a safety assessment can be found
in:
(1) EASA, ‘Certification specifications and
acceptable means of compliance for large
aeroplanes’, CS-25, Book 2, AMC-Subpart F,
AMC 25.1309;
(2) EUROCAE/SAE, ‘Guidelines for
development of civil aircraft and systems’, ED-
79/ARP 4754 (or later revisions); and
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(3) SAE, ‘Guidelines and methods for
conducting the safety assessment process on
civil airborne systems and equipment’, ARP
4761 (or later revisions).
(b) HIRF certification The type certificate data
sheet (TCDS), available on the EASA website
for each aircraft model having EASA
certification, lists whether the HIRF
certification has been performed through a
special condition. The operator may contact the
type certification holder to gain the necessary
information.
(c) Failure mode and effects analysis Further
guidance on performing a failure mode and
effects analysis can be found in:
(1) SAE ARP 4761 (or later revisions); and
(2) U.S. Department of Defense, ‘Procedures
for performing a failure mode, effects and
criticality analysis’, Military Standard MIL-
STD-1629A (or later revisions).
CAT.GEN.MPA.145 Information on The operator shall at all times have available
emergency and survival equipment for immediate communication to rescue
carried coordination centres (RCCs) lists containing
information on the emergency and survival
equipment carried on board any of their
aircraft.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.145 Information ---
on emergency and survival equipment
carried
ITEMS FOR COMMUNICATION TO THE ---
RESCUE COORDINATION CENTRE
The information, compiled in a list, should
include, as applicable, the number, colour and
type of life-rafts and pyrotechnics, details of
emergency medical supplies, e.g. first-aid kits,
emergency medical kits, water supplies and the
type and frequencies of emergency portable
radio equipment.
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CAT.GEN.MPA.150 Ditching — The operator shall only operate an aeroplane
aeroplanes with a passenger seating configuration of more
than 30 on overwater flights at a distance from
land suitable for making an emergency landing,
greater than 120 minutes at cruising speed, or
400 NM, whichever is less, if the aeroplane
complies with the ditching provisions
prescribed in the applicable airworthiness code.
CAT.GEN.MPA.155 Carriage of weapons (a) The operator shall only transport weapons
of war and munitions of war of war or munitions of war by air if an approval
to do so has been granted by all States whose
airspace is intended to be used for the flight.
(b) Where an approval has been granted, the ---
operator shall ensure that weapons of war and
munitions of war are:
(1) stowed in the aircraft in a place that is
inaccessible to passengers during flight; and
(2) in the case of firearms, unloaded.
(c) The operator shall ensure that, before a
flight begins, the commander is notified of the
details and location on board the aircraft of any
weapons of war and munitions of war intended
to be carried.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.155 Carriage of
weapons of war and munitions of war
WEAPONS OF WAR AND MUNITIONS (a) In accordance with Regulation (EC) No
OF WAR 300/2008, weapons of war may be carried on
board an aircraft, in a place that is not
inaccessible, if the required security conditions
in accordance with national laws have been
fulfilled and authorisation has been given by
the States involved.
(b) There is no internationally agreed definition
of weapons of war and munitions of war. Some
States may have defined them for their
particular purposes or for national need.
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(c) It is the responsibility of the operator to
check, with the State(s) concerned, whether or
not a particular weapon or munition is regarded
as a weapon of war or munitions of war. In this
context, States that may be concerned with
granting approvals for the carriage of weapons
of war or munitions of war are those of origin,
transit, overflight and destination of the
consignment and the State of the operator.
(d) Where weapons of war or munitions of war
are also dangerous goods by definition (e.g.
torpedoes, bombs, etc.), CAT.GEN.MPA.200
Transport of dangerous goods also applies.
CAT.GEN.MPA.160 Carriage of sporting (a) The operator shall take all reasonable
weapons and ammunition measures to ensure that any sporting weapons
intended to be carried by air are reported to the
operator.
(b) The operator accepting the carriage of ---
sporting weapons shall ensure that they are:
(1) stowed in the aircraft in a place that is
inaccessible to passengers during flight; and
(2) in the case of firearms or other weapons that
can contain ammunition, unloaded.
(c) Ammunition for sporting weapons may be
carried in passengers’ checked baggage, subject
to certain limitations, in accordance with the
technical instructions.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.160 Carriage of
sporting weapons and ammunition
SPORTING WEAPONS (a) In accordance with Regulation (EC) No
300/2008 sporting weapons may be carried on
board an aircraft, in a place that is not
inaccessible, if the required security conditions
in accordance with national laws have been
fulfilled and authorisation has been given by
the States involved.
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(b) There is no internationally agreed definition
of sporting weapons. In general, it may be any
weapon that is not a weapon of war or
munitions of war. Sporting weapons include
hunting knives, bows and other similar articles.
An antique weapon, which at one time may
have been a weapon of war or munitions of
war, such as a musket, may now be regarded as
a sporting weapon.
(c) A firearm is any gun, rifle or pistol that fires
a projectile.
(d) The following firearms are generally
regarded as being sporting weapons:
(1) those designed for shooting game, birds and
other animals;
(2) those used for target shooting, clay-pigeon
shooting and competition shooting, providing
the weapons are not those on standard issue to
military forces; and
(3) airguns, dart guns, starting pistols, etc.
(e) A firearm, which is not a weapon of war or
munitions of war, should be treated as a
sporting weapon for the purposes of its carriage
on an aircraft.
CAT.GEN.MPA.161 Carriage of sporting Notwithstanding CAT.GEN.MPA.160(b), for
weapons and ammunition — alleviations helicopters with a maximum certified take-off
mass (MCTOM) of 3 175 kg or less operated
by day and over routes navigated by reference
to visual landmarks, a sporting weapon may be
carried in a place that is accessible during
flight, provided that the operator has
established appropriate procedures and it is
impracticable to stow it in an inaccessible
stowage during flight.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.161 Carriage of ---
sporting weapons and ammunition -
alleviations
SPORTING WEAPONS - HELICOPTERS ---
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Procedures for the carriage of sporting weapons
may need to be considered if the helicopter
does not have a separate compartment in which
the weapons can be stowed. These procedures
should take into account the nature of the flight,
its origin and destination, and the possibility of
unlawful interference. As far as possible, the
weapons should be stowed so they are not
immediately accessible to the passengers, e.g.
in locked boxes, in checked baggage that is
stowed under other baggage or under fixed
netting.
CAT.GEN.MPA.165 Method of carriage The operator shall take all measures to ensure ---
of persons that no person is in any part of an aircraft in
flight that is not designed for the
accommodation of persons unless temporary
access has been granted by the commander:
(a) for the purpose of taking action necessary
for the safety of the aircraft or of any person,
animal or goods therein; or
(b) to a part of the aircraft in which cargo or
supplies are carried, being a part that is
designed to enable a person to have access
thereto while the aircraft is in flight.
CAT.GEN.MPA.170 Alcohol and drugs The operator shall take all reasonable measures
to ensure that no person enters or is in an
aircraft when under the influence of alcohol or
drugs to the extent that the safety of the aircraft
or its occupants is likely to be endangered.
CAT.GEN.MPA.175 Endangering safety The operator shall take all reasonable measures ---
to ensure that no person recklessly or
negligently acts or omits to act so as to:
(a) endanger an aircraft or person therein; or
(b) cause or permit an aircraft to endanger any
person or property.
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required
CAT.GEN.MPA.180 Documents, manuals (a) The following documents, manuals and ---
and information to be carried information shall be carried on each flight, as
originals or copies unless otherwise specified:
(1) the aircraft flight manual (AFM), or
equivalent document(s);
(2) the original certificate of registration;
(3) the original certificate of airworthiness
(CofA);
(4) the noise certificate, including an English
translation, where one has been provided by the
authority responsible for issuing the noise
certificate;
(5) a certified true copy of the air operator
certificate (AOC);
(6) the operations specifications relevant to the
aircraft type, issued with the AOC, including an
English translation when the operations
specifications have been issued in another
language;
(7) the original aircraft radio licence, if
applicable;
(8) the third party liability insurance
certificate(s);
(9) the journey log, or equivalent, for the
aircraft;
(10) the aircraft technical log, in accordance
with Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EC) No
2042/2003;
(11) details of the filed ATS flight plan, if
applicable;
(12) current and suitable aeronautical charts for
the route of the proposed flight and all routes
along which it is reasonable to expect that the
flight may be diverted;
(13) procedures and visual signals information
for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;
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(14) information concerning search and rescue
services for the area of the intended flight,
which shall be easily accessible in the flight
crew compartment;
(15) the current parts of the operations manual
that are relevant to the duties of the crew
members, which shall be easily accessible to
the crew members;
(16) the MEL;
(17) appropriate notices to airmen (NOTAMs)
and aeronautical information service (AIS)
briefing documentation;
(18) appropriate meteorological information;
(19) cargo and/or passenger manifests, if
applicable;
(20) mass and balance documentation;
(21) the operational flight plan, if applicable;
(22) notification of special categories of
passenger (SCPs) and special loads, if
applicable; and
(23) any other documentation that may be
pertinent to the flight or is required by the
States concerned with the flight.
(b) Notwithstanding (a), for operations under ---
visual flight rules (VFR) by day with other-
than-complex motor-powered aircraft taking off
and landing at the same aerodrome or operating
site within 24 hours, or remaining within a
local area specified in the operations manual,
the following documents and information may
be retained at the aerodrome or operating site
instead:
(1) noise certificate;
(2) aircraft radio licence;
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(3) journey log, or equivalent;
(4) aircraft technical log;
(5) NOTAMs and AIS briefing documentation;
(6) meteorological information;
(7) notification of SCPs and special loads, if
applicable; and
(8) mass and balance documentation.
(c) Notwithstanding (a), in case of loss or theft
of documents specified in (a)(2) to (a)(8), the
operation may continue until the flight reaches
its destination or a place where replacement
documents can be provided.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.180 Documents, ---
manuals and information to be carried
GENERAL ---
The documents, manuals and information may
be available in a form other than on printed
paper. Accessibility, usability and reliability
should be assured.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.180(a)(1)
Documents, manuals and information to
be carried
AIRCRAFT FLIGHT MANUAL OR ‘Aircraft flight manual, or equivalent
EQUIVALENT DOCUMENT(S) document(s)’ means in the context of this rule
the flight manual for the aircraft, or other
documents containing information required for
the operation of the aircraft within the terms of
its certificate of airworthiness unless these data
are available in the parts of the operations
manual carried on board.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.180(a)(5)(6)
Documents, manuals and information to
be carried
CERTIFIED TRUE COPIES (a) Certified true copies may be provided:
(1) directly by the competent authority; or
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(2) by persons holding privileges for
certification of official documents in
accordance with the applicable Member State’s
legislation, e.g. public notaries, authorised
officials in public services.
(b) Translations of the air operator certificate
(AOC) including operations specifications do
not need to be certified.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.180(a)(9)
Documents, manuals and information to
be carried
JOURNEY LOG OR EQUIVALENT ‘Journey log, or equivalent’ means that the
required information may be recorded in
documentation other than a log book, such as
the operational flight plan or the aircraft
technical log.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.180(a)(13) ---
Documents, manuals and information to
be carried
PROCEDURES AND VISUAL SIGNALS ---
FOR USE BY INTERCEPTING AND
INTERCEPTED AIRCRAFT
The procedures and the visual signals
information for use by intercepting and
intercepted aircraft should reflect those
contained in International Civil Aviation
Organisation (ICAO) Annex 2. This may be
part of the operations manual.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.180(a)(14)
Documents, manuals and information to
be carried
SEARCH AND RESCUE INFORMATION This information is usually found in the State’s
aeronautical information publication.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.180(a)(23)
Documents, manuals and information to
be carried
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DOCUMENTS THAT MAY BE Any other documents that may be pertinent to
PERTINENT TO THE FLIGHT the flight or required by the States concerned
with the flight, may include, for example, forms
to comply with reporting requirements.
STATES CONCERNED WITH THE The States concerned are those of origin,
FLIGHT transit, overflight and destination of the flight.
CAT.GEN.MPA.185 Information to be (a) The operator shall ensure that at least for the ---
retained on the ground duration of each flight or series of flights:
(1) information relevant to the flight and
appropriate for the type of operation is
preserved on the ground;
(2) the information is retained until it has been
duplicated at the place at which it will be
stored; or, if this is impracticable
(3) the same information is carried in a
fireproof container in the aircraft.
(b) The information referred to in (a) includes: ---
(1) a copy of the operational flight plan, where
appropriate;
(2) copies of the relevant part(s) of the aircraft
technical log;
(3) route-specific NOTAM documentation if
specifically edited by the operator;
(4) mass and balance documentation if
required; and
(5) special loads notification.
CAT.GEN.MPA.190 Provision of The commander shall, within a reasonable time
documentation and records of being requested to do so by a person
authorised by an authority, provide to that
person the documentation required to be carried
on board.
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CAT.GEN.MPA.195 Handling of flight (a) Following an accident or an incident that is
recorder recordings: preservation, subject to mandatory reporting, the operator of
production, protection and use an aircraft shall preserve the original recorded
data for a period of 60 days unless otherwise
- GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(a) directed by the investigating authority.
- GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b)
(b) The operator shall conduct operational
checks and evaluations of flight data recorder
(FDR) recordings, cockpit voice recorder
(CVR) recordings and data link recordings to
ensure the continued serviceability of the
recorders.
(c) The operator shall save the recordings for
the period of operating time of the FDR as
required by CAT.IDE.A.190 or
CAT.IDE.H.190, except that, for the purpose of
testing and maintaining the FDR, up to one
hour of the oldest recorded material at the time
of testing may be erased.
(d) The operator shall keep and maintain up-to-
date documentation that presents the necessary
information to convert FDR raw data into
parameters expressed in engineering units.
(e) The operator shall make available any flight
recorder recording that has been preserved, if
so determined by the competent authority.
(f) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No ---
996/2010 of the European Parliament and of
the Council:
(1) Except for ensuring the CVR serviceability,
CVR recordings shall not be disclosed or used
unless:
(i) a procedure related to the handling of CVR
recordings and of their transcript is in place;
(ii) all crew members and maintenance
personnel concerned have given their prior
consent; and
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(iii) they are used only for maintaining or
improving safety.
(1a) When a CVR recording is inspected for
ensuring the CVR serviceability, the operator
shall ensure the privacy of the CVR recording
and the CVR recording shall not be disclosed or
used for other purposes than ensuring the CVR
serviceability.
(2) FDR recordings or data link recordings ---
shall only be used for purposes other than for
the investigation of an accident or an incident
which is subject to mandatory reporting, if such
records are:
(i) used by the operator for airworthiness or
maintenance purposes only; or
(ii) de-identified; or
(iii) disclosed under secure procedures.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(a) Handling (a) The operator should establish procedures to
of flight recorder recordings: ensure that flight recorder recordings are
preservation, production, protection and preserved for the investigating authority.
use
PRESERVATION OF RECORDED DATA (b) These procedures should include:
FOR INVESTIGATION
(1) instructions for flight crew members to
deactivate the flight recorders immediately
after completion of the flight and inform
relevant personnel that the recording of the
flight recorders should be preserved. These
instructions should be readily available on
board; and
(2) instructions to prevent inadvertent
reactivation, test, repair or reinstallation of the
flight recorders by operator personnel or during
maintenance or ground handling activities
performed by third parties.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(a) Handling of
flight recorder recordings: preservation,
production, protection and use
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required
REMOVAL OF RECORDERS IN CASE The need for removal of the recorders from the
OF AN INVESTIGATION aircraft is determined by the investigating
authority with due regard to the seriousness of
an occurrence and the circumstances, including
the impact on the operation.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b) Handling ---
of flight recorder recordings:
preservation, production, protection and
use
INSPECTIONS AND CHECKS OF ---
RECORDINGS
Whenever a flight recorder is required to be ---
carried:
(a) the operator should perform an inspection of ---
the FDR recording and the CVR recording
every year unless one or more of the following
applies:
(1) If the flight recorder records on magnetic
wire or uses frequency modulation technology,
the time interval between two inspections of the
recording should not exceed three months.
(2) If the flight recorder is solid-state and the ---
flight recorder system is fitted with continuous
monitoring for proper operation, the time
interval between two inspections of the
recording may be up to two years.
(3) In the case of an aircraft equipped with two
solid-state flight data and cockpit voice
combination recorders, where
(i) the flight recorder systems are fitted with
continuous monitoring for proper operation,
and
(ii) the flight recorders share the same flight
data acquisition,
a comprehensive inspection of the recording
needs only to be performed for one flight
recorder position. The inspection of the
recordings should be performed alternately so
that each flight recorder position is inspected at
time intervals not exceeding four years.
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(4) Where all of the following conditions are
met, the inspection of the FDR recording is not
needed:
(i) the aircraft flight data are collected in the
frame of a flight data monitoring (FDM)
programme;
(ii) the data acquisition of mandatory flight
parameters is the same for the FDR and for the
recorder used for the FDM programme;
(iii) an inspection similar to the inspection of
the FDR recording and covering all mandatory
flight parameters is conducted on the FDM data
at time intervals not exceeding two years; and
(iv) the FDR is solid-state and the FDR system
is fitted with continuous monitoring for proper
operation.
(b) the operator should perform every five
years an inspection of the data link recording;
(c) when installed, the aural or visual means for
preflight checking the flight recorders for
proper operation should be used every day.
When no such means is available for a flight
recorder, the operator should perform an
operational check of this flight recorder at time
intervals not exceeding seven calendar days of
operation.
(d) the operator should check every five years,
or in accordance with the recommendations of
the sensor manufacturer, that the parameters
dedicated to the FDR and not monitored by
other means are being recorded within the
calibration tolerances and that there is no
discrepancy in the engineering conversion
routines for these parameters.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b) Handling of
flight recorder recordings: preservation,
production, protection and use
INSPECTION OF THE FLIGHT (a) The inspection of the FDR recording
RECORDERS RECORDING usually consists of the following:
(1) Making a copy of the complete recording
file
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(2) Converting the recording to parameters
expressed in engineering units in accordance
with the documentation required to be held.
(3) Examining a whole flight in engineering
units to evaluate the validity of all mandatory
parameters — this could reveal defects or noise
in the measuring and processing chains and
indicate necessary maintenance actions. The
following should be considered:
(i) when applicable, each parameter should be
expressed in engineering units and checked for
different values of its operational range — for
this purpose, some parameters may need to be
inspected at different flight phases; and
(ii) if the parameter is delivered by a digital
data bus and the same data are utilised for the
operation of the aircraft, then a reasonableness
check may be sufficient; otherwise a correlation
check may need to be performed:
(A) a reasonableness check is understood in
this context as a subjective, qualitative
evaluation, requiring technical judgement, of
the recordings from a complete flight; and
(B) a correlation check is understood in this
context as the process of comparing data
recorded by the flight data recorder against the
corresponding data derived from flight
instruments, indicators or the expected values
obtained during specified portion(s) of a flight
profile or during ground checks that are
conducted for that purpose.
(4) Retaining the most recent copy of the
complete recording file and the corresponding
recording inspection report that includes
references to the documentation required to be
held.
(b) When performing the CVR recording
inspection, precautions need to be taken to
comply with CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1a). The
inspection of the CVR recording usually
consists of:
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(1) checking that the CVR operates correctly
for the nominal duration of the recording;
(2) examining, where practicable, a sample of
in-flight recording of the CVR for evidence that
the signal is acceptable on each channel; and
(3) preparing and retaining an inspection report.
(c) The inspection of the DLR recording
usually consists of:
(1) Checking the consistency of the data link
recording with other recordings for example,
during a designated flight, the flight crew
speaks out a few data link messages sent and
received. After the flight, the data link
recording and the CVR recording are compared
for consistency.
(2) Retaining the most recent copy of the
complete recording and the corresponding
inspection report.
GM2 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b) Handling of
flight recorder recordings: preservation,
production, protection and use
MONITORING AND CHECKING THE
PROPER OPERATION OF FLIGHT
RECORDERS — EXPLANATION OF
TERMS
For the understanding of the terms used in
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b):
(a) ‘operational check of the flight recorder’
means a check of the flight recorder for proper
operation. It is not a check of the quality of the
recording and, therefore, it is not equivalent to
an inspection of the recording. This check can
be carried out by the flight crew or through a
maintenance task.
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required
(b) ‘aural or visual means for preflight
checking the flight recorders for proper
operation’ means an aural or visual means for
the flight crew to check before the flight the
results of an automatically or manually initiated
test of the flight recorders for proper operation.
Such a means provides for an operational check
that can be performed by the flight crew.
(c) ‘flight recorder system’ means the flight
recorder, its dedicated sensors and transducers,
as well as its dedicated acquisition and
processing equipment.
(d) ‘continuous monitoring for proper
operation’ means for a flight recorder system, a
combination of system monitors and/or built-in
test functions which operates continuously in
order to detect the following:
(1) loss of electrical power supply to the flight
recorder system;
(2) failure of the equipment performing
acquisition and processing;
(3) failure of the recording medium and/or
drive mechanism; and
(4) failure of the recorder to store the data in
the recording medium as shown by checks of
the recorded data including, as reasonably
practicable for the storage medium concerned,
correct correspondence with the input data.
However, detections by the continuous
monitoring for proper operation do not need to
be automatically reported to the flight crew
compartment.
GM3 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b) Handling of
flight recorder recordings: preservation,
production, protection and use
CVR AUDIO QUALITY Examples of CVR audio quality issues and
possible causes thereof may be found in the
document of the French Bureau d’Enquêtes et
d’Analyses, titled ‘Study on detection of audio
anomalies on CVR recordings’ and dated
September 20153 .
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required
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1)
Handling of flight recorder recordings:
preservation, production, protection and
use
USE OF CVR RECORDINGS FOR (a) The procedure related to the handling of
MAINTAINING OR IMPROVING cockpit voice recorder (CVR) recordings
SAFETY should be written in a document which should
be signed by all parties (airline management,
crew member representatives nominated either
by the union or the crew themselves,
maintenance personnel representatives if
applicable). This procedure should, as a
minimum, define:
(1) the method to obtain the consent of all crew
members and maintenance personnel
concerned;
(2) an access and security policy that restricts
access to CVR recordings and identified CVR
transcripts to specifically authorised persons
identified by their position;
(3) a retention policy and accountability,
including the measures to be taken to ensure the
security of the CVR recordings and CVR
transcripts and their protection from misuse.
The retention policy should specify the period
of time after which CVR recordings and
identified CVR transcripts are destroyed;
(4) a description of the uses made of the CVR
recordings and of their transcripts;
(5) the participation of flight crew member
representatives in the assessment of the CVR
recordings or their transcripts;
(6) the conditions under which advisory
briefing or remedial training should take place;
this should always be carried out in a
constructive and non-punitive manner; and
(7) the conditions under which actions other
than advisory briefing or remedial training may
be taken for reasons of gross negligence or
significant continuing safety concern.
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(b) Each time a CVR recording file is read out
under the conditions defined by
CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1):
(1) parts of the CVR recording file that contain
information with a privacy content should be
deleted to the extent possible, and it should not
be permitted that the detail of information with
a privacy content is transcribed; and
(2) the operator should retain, and when
requested, provide to the competent authority:
(i) information on the use made (or the intended
use) of the CVR recording; and
(ii) evidence that the persons concerned
consented to the use made (or the intended use)
of the CVR recording file.
(c) The safety manager or the person identified
by the operator to fulfil this role should be
responsible for the protection and use of the
CVR recordings and of their transcripts, as well
as the assessment of issues and their
transmission to the manager(s) responsible for
the process concerned.
(d) In case a third party is involved in the use of
CVR recordings, contractual agreements with
this third party should, when applicable, cover
the aspects enumerated in (a) and (b).
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1) Handling
of flight recorder recordings:
preservation, production, protection and
use
USE OF CVR RECORDINGS FOR (a) The CVR is primarily a tool for the
MAINTAINING OR IMPROVING investigation of accidents and serious incidents
SAFETY by investigating authorities. Misuse of CVR
recordings is a breach of the right to privacy
and it works against an effective safety culture
inside the operator.
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(b) It is noteworthy that the flight data recorder
(FDR) may be used for a flight data monitoring
(FDM) programme; however, in that case the
principles of confidentiality and access
restriction of the FDM programme apply to the
FDR recordings. Because the CVR is recording
the voices of the crew and verbal
communications with a privacy content, the
CVR recordings must be protected and handled
with even more care than FDM data.
(c) Therefore, the use of a CVR recording,
when for purposes other than CVR
serviceability or those laid down by Regulation
(EU) No 996/2010, should be subject to the
free prior consent of the persons concerned, and
framed by a procedure that is endorsed by all
parties and that protects the privacy of crew
members and (if applicable) maintenance staff.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1a)
Handling of flight recorder recordings:
preservation, production, protection and
use
CVR RECORDING INSPECTION FOR (a) When an inspection of the CVR recording is
ENSURING SERVICEABILITY performed for ensuring audio quality and
intelligibility of recorded communications:
(1) the privacy of the CVR recording should be
ensured (e.g. by locating the CVR replay
equipment in a separated area and/or using
headsets);
(2) access to the CVR replay equipment should
be restricted to specifically authorised persons;
(3) provision should be made for the secure
storage of the CVR recording medium, the
CVR recording files and copies thereof;
(4) the CVR recording files and copies thereof
should be destroyed not earlier than two
months and not later than one year after
completion of the CVR recording inspection,
except that audio samples with no privacy
content may be retained for enhancing the CVR
recording inspection (e.g. for comparing audio
quality);
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(5) only the accountable manager of the
operator, and when identified to comply with
ORO.GEN.200, the safety manager should be
entitled to request a copy of the CVR recording
files.
(b) The conditions enumerated in (a) should
also be complied with if the inspection of the
CVR recording is subcontracted to a third
party. The contractual agreements with the
third party should explicitly cover these
aspects.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(2) Handling
of flight recorder recordings:
preservation, production, protection and
use
USE OF FDR DATA FOR AN FDM The use of FDR data in the framework of an
PROGRAMME FDM programme may be acceptable if it fulfils
the conditions set by sub-paragraph (f)(2) of
CAT.GEN.MPA.195.
CAT.GEN.MPA.200 Transport of (a) Unless otherwise permitted by this Annex,
dangerous goods the transport of dangerous goods by air shall be
conducted in accordance with Annex 18 to the
- GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.200 Chicago Convention as last amended and
amplified by the ‘Technical instructions for the
safe transport of dangerous goods by air’
(ICAO Doc 9284-AN/905), including its
supplements and any other addenda or
corrigenda.
(b) Dangerous goods shall only be transported ---
by an operator approved in accordance with
Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart G, except when:
(1) they are not subject to the technical
instructions in accordance with Part 1 of those
instructions; or
(2) they are carried by passengers or crew
members, or are in baggage, in accordance with
Part 8 of the technical instructions.
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(c) An operator shall establish procedures to
ensure that all reasonable measures are taken to
prevent dangerous goods from being carried on
board inadvertently.
(d) The operator shall provide personnel with
the necessary information enabling them to
carry out their responsibilities, as required by
the technical instructions.
(e) The operator shall, in accordance with the ---
technical instructions, report without delay to
the competent authority and the appropriate
authority of the State of occurrence in the event
of:
(1) any dangerous goods accidents or incidents;
(2) the discovery of undeclared or misdeclared
dangerous goods in cargo or mail; or
(3) the finding of dangerous goods carried by
passengers or crew members, or in their
baggage, when not in accordance with Part 8 of
the technical instructions.
(f) The operator shall ensure that passengers are
provided with information about dangerous
goods in accordance with the technical
instructions.
(g) The operator shall ensure that notices giving
information about the transport of dangerous
goods are provided at acceptance points for
cargo as required by the technical instructions.
AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.200(e) Transport ---
of dangerous goods
DANGEROUS GOODS ACCIDENT AND ---
INCIDENT REPORTING
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(a) Any type of dangerous goods accident or
incident, or the finding of undeclared or
misdeclared dangerous goods should be
reported, irrespective of whether the dangerous
goods are contained in cargo, mail, passengers’
baggage or crew baggage. For the purposes of
the reporting of undeclared and misdeclared
dangerous goods found in cargo, the Technical
Instructions considers this to include items of
operators’ stores that are classified as
dangerous goods.
(b) The first report should be dispatched within
72 hours of the event. It may be sent by any
means, including e-mail, telephone or fax. This
report should include the details that are known
at that time, under the headings identified in
(c). If necessary, a subsequent report should be
made as soon as possible giving all the details
that were not known at the time the first report
was sent. If a report has been made verbally,
written confirmation should be sent as soon as
possible.
(c) The first and any subsequent report should ---
be as precise as possible and should contain the
following data, where relevant:
(1) date of the incident or accident or the
finding of undeclared or misdeclared dangerous
goods;
(2) location, the flight number and flight date;
(3) description of the goods and the reference
number of the air waybill, pouch, baggage tag,
ticket, etc.;
(4) proper shipping name (including the
technical name, if appropriate) and UN/ID
number, when known;
(5) class or division and any subsidiary risk;
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(6) type of packaging, and the packaging
specification marking on it;
(7) quantity;
(8) name and address of the shipper, passenger,
etc.;
(9) any other relevant details;
(10) suspected cause of the incident or
accident;
(11) action taken;
(12) any other reporting action taken; and
(13) name, title, address and telephone number
of the person making the report.
(d) Copies of relevant documents and any
photographs taken should be attached to the
report.
(e) A dangerous goods accident or incident may
also constitute an aircraft accident, serious
incident or incident. Reports should be made
for both types of occurrences when the criteria
for each are met.
(f) The following dangerous goods reporting
form should be used, but other forms, including
electronic transfer of data, may be used
provided that at least the minimum information
of this AMC is supplied:
(*See corresponding Dangerous goods report
form)
Notes for completion of the form: ---
1. A dangerous goods accident is as defined in
Annex I. For this purpose serious injury is as
defined in Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the
European Parliament and of the Council.
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2. This form should also be used to report any
occasion when undeclared or misdeclared
dangerous goods are discovered in cargo, mail
or unaccompanied baggage or when
accompanied baggage contains dangerous
goods which passengers or crew are not
permitted to take on aircraft.
3. The initial report should be dispatched unless
exceptional circumstances prevent this. This
occurrence report form, duly completed, should
be sent as soon as possible, even if all the
information is not available.
4. Copies of all relevant documents and any
photographs should be attached to this report.
5. Any further information, or any information
not included in the initial report, should be sent
as soon as possible to authorities identified in
CAT.GEN.MPA.200 (e).
6. Providing it is safe to do so, all dangerous
goods, packaging, documents, etc., relating to
the occurrence should be retained until after the
initial report has been sent to the authorities
identified in CAT.GEN.MPA.200 (e) and they
have indicated whether or not these should
continue to be retained.
GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.200 Transport of ---
dangerous goods
GENERAL (a) The requirement to transport dangerous
goods by air in accordance with the Technical
Instructions is irrespective of whether:
(1) the flight is wholly or partly within or
wholly outside the territory of a State; or
(2) an approval to carry dangerous goods in
accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart
G is held.
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(b) The Technical Instructions provide that in
certain circumstances dangerous goods, which
are normally forbidden on an aircraft, may be
carried. These circumstances include cases of
extreme urgency or when other forms of
transport are inappropriate or when full
compliance with the prescribed requirements is
contrary to the public interest. In these
circumstances, all the States concerned may
grant exemptions from the provisions of the
Technical Instructions provided that an overall
level of safety which is at least equivalent to
that provided by the Technical Instructions is
achieved. Although exemptions are most likely
to be granted for the carriage of dangerous
goods that are not permitted in normal
circumstances, they may also be granted in
other circumstances, such as when the
packaging to be used is not provided for by the
appropriate packing method or the quantity in
the packaging is greater than that permitted.
The Technical Instructions also make provision
for some dangerous goods to be carried when
an approval has been granted only by the State
of origin and the State of the operator.
(c) When an exemption is required, the States
concerned are those of origin, transit, overflight
and destination of the consignment and that of
the operator. For the State of overflight, if none
of the criteria for granting an exemption are
relevant, an exemption may be granted based
solely on whether it is believed that an
equivalent level of safety in air transport has
been achieved.
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(d) The Technical Instructions provide that
exemptions and approvals are granted by the
‘appropriate national authority’, which is
intended to be the authority responsible for the
particular aspect against which the exemption
or approval is being sought. The Instructions do
not specify who should seek exemptions and,
depending on the legislation of the particular
State, this may mean the operator, the shipper
or an agent. If an exemption or approval has
been granted to other than the operator, the
operator should ensure a copy has been
obtained before the relevant flight. The
operator should ensure all relevant conditions
on an exemption or approval are met.
(e) The exemption or approval referred to in (b)
to (d) is in addition to the approval required by
Annex V (Part SPA), Subpart G.
CAT.GEN.MPA.205 Aircraft tracking
system — Aeroplanes
(a) By 16 December 2018 at the latest, the
operator shall establish and maintain, as part of
the system for exercising operational control
over the flights, an aircraft tracking system,
which includes the flights eligible to (b) when
performed with the following aeroplanes:
(1) aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than
27 000 kg, with an MOPSC of more than 19,
and first issued with an individual CofA before
16 December 2018, which are equipped with a
capability to provide a position additional to the
secondary surveillance radar transponder;
(2) all aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more
than 27 000 kg, with an MOPSC of more than
19, and first issued with an individual CofA on
or after 16 December 2018; and
(3) all aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more
than 45 500 kg and first issued with an
individual CofA on or after 16 December 2018.
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(b) Flights shall be tracked by the operator from
take-off to landing, except when the planned
route and the planned diversion routes are fully
included in airspace blocks where:
(1) ATS surveillance service is normally
provided which is supported by ATC
surveillance systems locating the aircraft at
time intervals with adequate duration; and
(2) the operator has provided to competent air
navigation service providers necessary contact
information.
CAT.GEN.MPA.210 Location of an
aircraft in distress — Aeroplanes
The following aeroplanes shall be equipped
with robust and automatic means to accurately
determine, following an accident where the
aeroplane is severely damaged, the location of
the point of end of flight:
(1) all aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more
than 27 000 kg, with an MOPSC of more than
19 and first issued with an individual CofA on
or after 1 January 2021; and
(2) all aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more
than 45 500 kg and first issued with an
individual CofA on or after 1 January 2021
SUBPART B ---
OPERATING PROCEDURES ---
SECTION 1 ---
Motor-powered aircraft ---
CAT.OP.MPA.100 Use of air traffic (a) The operator shall ensure that: ---
services
(1) air traffic services (ATS) appropriate to the
airspace and the applicable rules of the air are
used for all flights whenever available;
(2) in-flight operational instructions involving a
change to the ATS flight plan, when
practicable, are coordinated with the
appropriate ATS unit before transmission to an
aircraft.
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(b) Notwithstanding (a), the use of ATS is not ---
required unless mandated by air space
requirements for:
(1) operations under VFR by day of other-than-
complex motor-powered aeroplanes;
(2) helicopters with an MCTOM of 3 175 kg or
less operated by day and over routes navigated
by reference to visual landmarks; or
(3) local helicopter operations,
provided that search and rescue service ---
arrangements can be maintained.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.100(a)(2) Use of air
traffic services
IN-FLIGHT OPERATIONAL When coordination with an appropriate air
INSTRUCTIONS traffic service (ATS) unit has not been possible,
in-flight operational instructions do not relieve
a commander of the responsibility for obtaining
an appropriate clearance from an ATS unit, if
applicable, before making a change in flight
plan.
CAT.OP.MPA.105 Use of aerodromes (a) The operator shall only use aerodromes and
and operating sites operating sites that are adequate for the type(s)
of aircraft and operation(s) concerned.
(b) The use of operating sites shall only apply ---
to:
(1) other-than-complex motor-powered
aeroplanes; and
(2) helicopters.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.105 Use of ---
aerodromes and operating sites
DEFINING OPERATING SITES - ---
HELICOPTERS
When defining operating sites (including ---
infrequent or temporary sites) for the type(s) of
helicopter(s) and operation(s) concerned, the
operator should take account of the following:
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(a) An adequate site is a site that the operator
considers to be satisfactory, taking account of
the applicable performance requirements and
site characteristics (guidance on standards and
criteria are contained in ICAO Annex 14
Volume 2 and in the ICAO Heliport Manual
(Doc 9261-AN/903)).
(b) The operator should have in place a
procedure for the survey of sites by a
competent person. Such a procedure should
take account for possible changes to the site
characteristics which may have taken place
since last surveyed.
(c) Sites that are pre-surveyed should be ---
specifically specified in the operations manual.
The operations manual should contain diagrams
or/and ground and aerial photographs, and
depiction (pictorial) and description of:
(1) the overall dimensions of the site;
(2) location and height of relevant obstacles to
approach and take-off profiles, and in the
manoeuvring area;
(3) approach and take-off flight paths;
(4) surface condition (blowing dust/snow/sand);
(5) helicopter types authorised with reference to
performance requirements;
(6) provision of control of third parties on the
ground (if applicable);
(7) procedure for activating site with land
owner or controlling authority;
(8) other useful information, for example
appropriate ATS agency and frequency; and
(9) lighting (if applicable).
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(d) For sites that are not pre-surveyed, the
operator should have in place a procedure that
enables the pilot to make, from the air, a
judgment on the suitability of a site. (c)(1) to
(c)(6) should be considered.
(e) Operations to non-pre-surveyed sites by
night (except in accordance with
SPA.HEMS.125 (b)(4)) should not be
permitted.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.105 Use of This AMC is applicable until 01/07/2018, then ---
aerodromes and operating sites it will be deleted.
HELIDECK ---
(a) The content of Part C of the operations
manual relating to the specific usage of
helidecks should contain both the listing of
helideck limitations in a helideck limitations
list (HLL) and a pictorial representation
(template) of each helideck showing all
necessary information of a permanent nature.
The HLL should show, and be amended as
necessary to indicate, the most recent status of
each helideck concerning non-compliance with
ICAO Annex 14 Volume 2, limitations,
warnings, cautions or other comments of
operational importance. An example of a
typical template is shown in Figure 1 below.
(b) In order to ensure that the safety of flights is
not compromised, the operator should obtain
relevant information and details for compilation
of the HLL, and the pictorial representation,
from the owner/operator of the helideck.
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(c) When listing helidecks, if more than one
name of the helideck exists, the most common
name should be used and other names should
also be included. After renaming a helideck, the
old name should be included in the HLL for the
ensuing 6 months.
(d) All helideck limitations should be included
in the HLL. Helidecks without limitations
should also be listed. With complex
installations and combinations of installations
(e.g. co-locations), a separate listing in the
HLL, accompanied by diagrams where
necessary, may be required.
(e) Each helideck should be assessed based on ---
limitations, warnings, cautions or comments to
determine its acceptability with respect to the
following that, as a minimum, should cover the
factors listed below:
(1) The physical characteristics of the helideck.
(2) The preservation of obstacle-protected
surfaces is the most basic safeguard for all
flights.
These surfaces are: ---
(i) the minimum 210° obstacle-free surface
(OFS);
(ii) the 150° limited obstacle surface (LOS);
and
(iii) the minimum 180° falling ‘5:1’ - gradient
with respect to significant obstacles. If this is
infringed or if an adjacent installation or vessel
infringes the obstacle clearance surfaces or
criteria related to a helideck, an assessment
should be made to determine any possible
negative effect that may lead to operating
restrictions.
(3) Marking and lighting: ---
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(i) adequate perimeter lighting;
(ii) adequate floodlighting;
(iii) status lights (for night and day operations
e.g. signalling lamp);
(iv) dominant obstacle paint schemes and
lighting;
(v) helideck markings; and
(vi) general installation lighting levels. Any
limitations in this respect should be annotated
‘daylight only operations’ on the HLL.
(4) Deck surface: ---
(i) surface friction;
(ii) helideck net;
(iii) drainage system;
(iv) deck edge netting;
(v) tie down system; and
(vi) cleaning of all contaminants.
(5) Environment: ---
(i) foreign object damage;
(ii) physical turbulence generators;
(iii) bird control;
(iv) air quality degradation due to exhaust
emissions, hot gas vents or cold gas vents; and
(v) adjacent helideck may need to be included
in air quality assessment.
(6) Rescue and fire fighting: ---
(i) primary and complementary media types,
quantities, capacity and systems personal
protective equipment and clothing, breathing
apparatus; and
(ii) crash box.
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(7) Communications & navigation: ---
(i) aeronautical radio(s);
(ii) radio/telephone (R/T) call sign to match
helideck name and side identification which
should be simple and unique;
(iii) Non-directional beacon (NDB) or
equivalent (as appropriate);
(iv) radio log; and
(v) light signal (e.g. signalling lamp).
(8) Fuelling facilities: ---
(i) in accordance with the relevant national
guidance and regulations.
(9) Additional operational and handling ---
equipment:
(i) windsock;
(ii) wind recording;
(iii) deck motion recording and reporting where
applicable;
(iv) passenger briefing system;
(v) chocks;
(vi) tie downs; and
(vii) weighing scales.
(10) Personnel: ---
(i) trained helideck staff (e.g. helicopter landing
officer/helicopter deck assistant and fire
fighters etc.).
(11) Other: ---
(i) as appropriate.
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(f) For helidecks about which there is ---
incomplete information, ‘limited’ usage based
on the information available may be specified
by the operator prior to the first helicopter visit.
During subsequent operations and before any
limit on usage is lifted, information should be
gathered and the following should apply:
(1) Pictorial (static) representation: ---
(i) template (see figure 1) blanks should be
available, to be filled out during flight
preparation on the basis of the information
given by the helideck owner/operator and flight
crew observations;
(ii) where possible, suitably annotated
photographs may be used until the HLL and
template have been completed;
(iii) until the HLL and template have been
completed, operational restrictions (e.g.
performance, routing etc.) may be applied;
(iv) any previous inspection reports should be
obtained by the operator; and
(v) an inspection of the helideck should be
carried out to verify the content of the
completed HLL and template, following which
the helideck may be considered as fully
adequate for operations.
(2) With reference to the above, the HLL ---
should contain at least the following:
(i) HLL revision date and number;
(ii) generic list of helideck motion limitations;
(iii) name of helideck;
(iv) ‘D’ value; and
(v) limitations, warnings, cautions and
comments.
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(3) The template should contain at least the ---
following (see example below):
(i) installation/vessel name;
(ii) R/T call sign;
(iii) helideck identification marking;
(iv) side panel identification marking;
(v) helideck elevation;
(vi) maximum installation/vessel height;
(vii) 'D' value;
(viii) type of installation/vessel: ---
- fixed manned
- fixed unmanned
- ship type (e.g. diving support vessel)
- semi-submersible
- jack-up
(ix) name of owner/operator;
(x) geographical position;
(xi) communication and navigation (Com/Nav)
frequencies and ident;
(xii) general drawing preferably looking into
the helideck with annotations showing location
of derrick, masts, cranes, flare stack, turbine
and gas exhausts, side identification panels,
windsock etc.;
(xiii) plan view drawing, chart orientation from
the general drawing, to show the above. The
plan view will also show the 210° orientation in
degrees true;
(xiv) type of fuelling: ---
- pressure and gravity
- pressure only
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- gravity only
- none
(xv) type and nature of fire fighting equipment;
(xvi) availability of ground power unit (GPU);
(xvii) deck heading;
(xviii) maximum allowable mass;
(xix) status light (Yes/No); and
(xx) revision date of publication.
Figure 1 Helideck template ---
(*See Figure 1 Helideck template)
CAT.OP.MPA.106 Use of isolated (a) Using an isolated aerodrome as destination YES
aerodromes — aeroplanes aerodrome with aeroplanes requires the prior
approval by the competent authority.
(b) An isolated aerodrome is one for which the ---
alternate and final fuel reserve required to the
nearest adequate destination alternate
aerodrome is more than:
(1) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines,
fuel to fly for 45 minutes plus 15 % of the
flying time planned to be spent at cruising level
or two hours, whichever is less; or
(2) for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to
fly for two hours at normal cruise consumption
above the destination aerodrome, including
final reserve fuel.
CAT.OP.MPA.107 Adequate aerodrome The operator shall consider an aerodrome as
adequate if, at the expected time of use, the
aerodrome is available and equipped with
necessary ancillary services such as air traffic
services (ATS), sufficient lighting,
communications, weather reporting, navigation
aids and emergency services.
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CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome operating (a) The operator shall establish aerodrome
minima operating minima for each departure,
destination or alternate aerodrome planned to
- GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.110 be used. These minima shall not be lower than
- GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.110 those established for such aerodromes by the
- GM3 CAT.OP.MPA.110 State in which the aerodrome is located, except
- GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.110(a) when specifically approved by that State. Any
increment specified by the competent authority
shall be added to the minima.
(b) The use of a head-up display (HUD), head-
up guidance landing system (HUDLS) or
enhanced vision system (EVS) may allow
operations with lower visibilities than the
established aerodrome operating minima if
approved in accordance with SPA.LVO.
(c) When establishing aerodrome operating ---
minima, the operator shall take the following
into account:
(1) the type, performance and handling
characteristics of the aircraft;
(2) the composition, competence and
experience of the flight crew;
(3) the dimensions and characteristics of the
runways/final approach and take-off areas
(FATOs) that may be selected for use;
(4) the adequacy and performance of the
available visual and non-visual ground aids;
(5) the equipment available on the aircraft for
the purpose of navigation and/or control of the
flight path during the take-off, the approach,
the flare, the landing, rollout and the missed
approach;
(6) for the determination of obstacle clearance,
the obstacles in the approach, missed approach
and the climb-out areas necessary for the
execution of contingency procedures;
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(7) the obstacle clearance altitude/height for the
instrument approach procedures;
(8) the means to determine and report
meteorological conditions; and
(9) the flight technique to be used during the
final approach.
(d) The operator shall specify the method of
determining aerodrome operating minima in the
operations manual.
(e) The minima for a specific approach and ---
landing procedure shall only be used if all the
following conditions are met:
(1) the ground equipment shown on the chart
required for the intended procedure is
operative;
(2) the aircraft systems required for the type of
approach are operative;
(3) the required aircraft performance criteria are
met; and
(4) the crew is appropriately qualified.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
TAKE-OFF OPERATIONS - ---
AEROPLANES
(a) General ---
(1) Take-off minima should be expressed as
visibility or runway visual range (RVR) limits,
taking into account all relevant factors for each
aerodrome planned to be used and aircraft
characteristics. Where there is a specific need
to see and avoid obstacles on departure and/or
for a forced landing, additional conditions, e.g.
ceiling, should be specified.
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(2) The commander should not commence take-
off unless the weather conditions at the
aerodrome of departure are equal to or better
than applicable minima for landing at that
aerodrome unless a weather-permissible take-
off alternate aerodrome is available.
(3) When the reported meteorological visibility
(VIS) is below that required for take-off and
RVR is not reported, a take-off should only be
commenced if the commander can determine
that the visibility along the take-off runway is
equal to or better than the required minimum.
(4) When no reported meteorological visibility
or RVR is available, a take-off should only be
commenced if the commander can determine
that the visibility along the take-off runway is
equal to or better than the required minimum.
(b) Visual reference ---
(1) The take-off minima should be selected to
ensure sufficient guidance to control the aircraft
in the event of both a rejected take-off in
adverse circumstances and a continued take-off
after failure of the critical engine.
(2) For night operations, ground lights should
be available to illuminate the runway and any
obstacles.
(c) Required RVR/VIS – aeroplanes ---
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(1) For multi-engined aeroplanes, with
performance such that in the event of a critical
engine failure at any point during take-off the
aeroplane can either stop or continue the take-
off to a height of 1 500 ft above the aerodrome
while clearing obstacles by the required
margins, the take-off minima specified by the
operator should be expressed as RVR/CMV
(converted meteorological visibility) values not
lower than those specified in Table 1.A.
(*See Table 1.A: Take-off - aeroplanes
(without an approval for low visibility take-off
(LVTO)) RVR/VIS)
(2) For multi-engined aeroplanes without the
performance to comply with the conditions in
(c)(1) in the event of a critical engine failure,
there may be a need to re-land immediately and
to see and avoid obstacles in the take-off area.
Such aeroplanes may be operated to the
following take-off minima provided they are
able to comply with the applicable obstacle
clearance criteria, assuming engine failure at
the height specified. The take-off minima
specified by the operator should be based upon
the height from which the one-engine-
inoperative (OEI) net take-off flight path can be
constructed. The RVR minima used should not
be lower than either of the values specified in
Table 1.A or Table 2.A.
(*See Table 2.A: Take-off - aeroplanes
Assumed engine failure height above the
runway versus RVR/VIS)
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(3) For single-engined turbine aeroplane
operations approved in accordance with
Subpart L (SET-IMC) of Annex V (Part-SPA)
to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, the take-off
minima specified by the operator should be
expressed as RVR/CMV values not lower than
those specified in Table 1.A below. Unless the
operator is making use of a risk period,
whenever the surface in front of the runway
does not allow for a safe forced landing, the
RVR/CMV values should not be lower than
800 m. In this case, the proportion of the flight
to be considered starts at the lift-off position
and ends when the aeroplane is able to turn
back and land on the runway in the opposite
direction or glide to the next landing site in
case of power loss.
(4) When RVR or meteorological visibility is
not available, the commander should not
commence take-off unless he/she can determine
that the actual conditions satisfy the applicable
take-off minima.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
TAKE-OFF OPERATIONS - ---
HELICOPTERS
(a) General ---
(1) Take-off minima should be expressed as
visibility or runway visual range (RVR) limits,
taking into account all relevant factors for each
aerodrome planned to be used and aircraft
characteristics. Where there is a specific need
to see and avoid obstacles on departure and/or
for a forced landing, additional conditions, e.g.
ceiling, should be specified.
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(2) The commander should not commence take-
off unless the weather conditions at the
aerodrome of departure are equal to or better
than applicable minima for landing at that
aerodrome unless a weather-permissible take-
off alternate aerodrome is available.
(3) When the reported meteorological visibility
(VIS) is below that required for take-off and
RVR is not reported, a take-off should only be
commenced if the commander can determine
that the visibility along the take-off
runway/area is equal to or better than the
required minimum.
(4) When no reported meteorological visibility
or RVR is available, a take-off should only be
commenced if the commander can determine
that the visibility along the take-off
runway/area is equal to or better than the
required minimum.
(b) Visual reference ---
(1) The take-off minima should be selected to
ensure sufficient guidance to control the aircraft
in the event of both a rejected take-off in
adverse circumstances and a continued take-off
after failure of the critical engine.
(2) For night operations, ground lights should
be available to illuminate the runway/final
approach and take-off area (FATO) and any
obstacles.
(c) Required RVR/VIS – helicopters: ---
(1) For performance class 1 operations, the
operator should specify an RVR/VIS as take-
off minima in accordance with Table 1.H.
(*See Table 1.H: Take-off - helicopters
(without LVTO approval) RVR/VIS)
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(2) For performance class 2 operations onshore,
the commander should operate to take-off
minima of 800 m RVR/VIS and remain clear of
cloud during the take-off manoeuvre until
reaching performance class 1 capabilities.
(3) For performance class 2 operations
offshore, the commander should operate to
minima not less than that for performance class
1 and remain clear of cloud during the take-off
manoeuvre until reaching performance class 1
capabilities.
(4) Table 8 for converting reported
meteorological visibility to RVR should not be
used for calculating take-off minima.
(*See Table 8: Conversion of reported
meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV)
AMC3 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
NPA, APV, CAT I OPERATIONS ---
(a) The decision height (DH) to be used for a ---
non-precision approach (NPA) flown with the
continuous descent final approach (CDFA)
technique, approach procedure with vertical
guidance (APV) or CAT I operation should not
be lower than the highest of:
(1) the minimum height to which the approach
aid can be used without the required visual
reference;
(2) the obstacle clearance height (OCH) for the
category of aircraft;
(3) the published approach procedure DH
where applicable;
(4) the system minimum specified in Table 3;
or
(*See Table 3: System minima)
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(5) the minimum DH specified in the aircraft
flight manual (AFM) or equivalent document,
if stated.
(b) The minimum descent height (MDH) for an ---
NPA operation flown without the CDFA
technique should not be lower than the highest
of:
(1) the OCH for the category of aircraft;
(2) the system minimum specified in Table 3;
or
(3) the minimum MDH specified in the AFM,
if stated.
AMC4 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
CRITERIA FOR ESTABLISHING ---
RVR/CMV
(a) Aeroplanes ---
The following criteria for establishing ---
RVR/CMV should apply:
(1) In order to qualify for the lowest allowable ---
values of RVR/CMV specified in Table 6.A the
instrument approach should meet at least the
following facility specifications and associated
conditions:
(i) Instrument approaches with designated
vertical profile up to and including 4.5° for
category A and B aeroplanes, or 3.77° for
category C and D aeroplanes where the
facilities are:
(A) ILS / microwave landing system (MLS) /
GBAS landing system (GLS) / precision
approach radar (PAR); or
(B) APV; and
where the final approach track is offset by not ---
more than 15° for category A and B aeroplanes
or by not more than 5° for category C and D
aeroplanes.
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(ii) Instrument approach operations flown using ---
the CDFA technique with a nominal vertical
profile, up to and including 4.5° for category A
and B aeroplanes, or 3.77° for category C and
D aeroplanes, where the facilities are NDB,
NDB/DME, VOR, VOR/DME, LOC,
LOC/DME, VDF, SRA or GNSS/LNAV, with
a final approach segment of at least 3 NM,
which also fulfil the following criteria:
(A) the final approach track is offset by not
more than 15° for category A and B aeroplanes
or by not more than 5° for category C and D
aeroplanes;
(B) the final approach fix (FAF) or another
appropriate fix where descent is initiated is
available, or distance to threshold (THR) is
available by flight management system / GNSS
(FMS/GNSS) or DME; and
(C) if the missed approach point (MAPt) is
determined by timing, the distance from FAF or
another appropriate fix to THR is ≤ 8 NM.
(iii) Instrument approaches where the facilities
are NDB, NDB/DME, VOR, VOR/DME, LOC,
LOC/DME, VDF, SRA or GNSS/LNAV, not
fulfilling the criteria in (a)(1)(ii), or with an
MDH ≥ 1 200 ft.
(2) The missed approach operation, after an
approach operation has been flown using the
CDFA technique, should be executed when
reaching the DA/H or the MAPt, whichever
occurs first. The lateral part of the missed
approach procedure should be flown via the
MAPt unless otherwise stated on the approach
chart.
AMC5 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
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DETERMINATION OF RVR/CMV/VIS ---
MINIMA FOR NPA, APV, CAT I -
AEROPLANES
(a) Aeroplanes ---
The RVR/CMV/VIS minima for NPA, APV ---
and CAT I operations should be determined as
follows:
(1) The minimum RVR/CMV/VIS should be
the highest of the values specified in Table 5 or
Table 6.A but not greater than the maximum
values specified in Table 6.A, where
applicable.
(*See Table 5: RVR/CMV vs. DH/MDH)
(*See Table 6.A: CAT I, APV, NPA -
aeroplanes Minimum and maximum applicable
RVR/CMV (lower and upper cut-off limits)
(2) The values in Table 5 should be derived ---
from the formula below,
Required RVR/VIS (m) = [(DH/MDH (ft) x
0.3048) / tanα] - length of approach lights (m)
where α is the calculation angle, being a default
value of 3.00° increasing in steps of 0.10° for
each line in Table 5 up to 3.77° and then
remaining constant.
(3) If the approach is flown with a level flight
segment at or above MDA/H, 200 m should be
added for category A and B aeroplanes and 400
m for category C and D aeroplanes to the
minimum RVR/CMV/VIS value resulting from
the application of Tables 5 and 6.A.
(4) An RVR of less than 750 m as indicated in ---
Table 5 may be used:
(i) for CAT I operations to runways with full
approach lighting system (FALS), runway
touchdown zone lights (RTZL) and runway
centreline lights (RCLL);
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(ii) for CAT I operations to runways without
RTZL and RCLL when using an approved
head-up guidance landing system (HUDLS), or
equivalent approved system, or when
conducting a coupled approach or flight-
director-flown approach to a DH. The ILS
should not be published as a restricted facility;
and
(iii) for APV operations to runways with FALS,
RTZL and RCLL when using an approved
head-up display (HUD).
(5) Lower values than those specified in Table
5, for HUDLS and auto-land operations may be
used if approved in accordance with Annex V
(Part-SPA), Subpart E (SPA.LVO).
(6) The visual aids should comprise standard
runway day markings and approach and runway
lights as specified in Table 4. The competent
authority may approve that RVR values
relevant to a basic approach lighting system
(BALS) are used on runways where the
approach lights are restricted in length below
210 m due to terrain or water, but where at least
one cross-bar is available.
(*See Table 4: Approach lighting systems)
(7) For night operations or for any operation
where credit for runway and approach lights is
required, the lights should be on and
serviceable except as provided for in Table 9.
(*See Table 9: Failed or downgraded
equipment - effect on landing minima
Operations without a low visibility operations
(LVO) approval)
(8) For single-pilot operations, the minimum ---
RVR/VIS should be calculated in accordance
with the following additional criteria:
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(i) an RVR of less than 800 m as indicated in ---
Table 5 may be used for CAT I approaches
provided any of the following is used at least
down to the applicable DH:
(A) a suitable autopilot, coupled to an ILS,
MLS or GLS that is not published as restricted;
or
(B) an approved HUDLS, including, where
appropriate, enhanced vision system (EVS), or
equivalent approved system;
(ii) where RTZL and/or RCLL are not
available, the minimum RVR/CMV should not
be less than 600 m; and
(iii) an RVR of less than 800 m as indicated in
Table 5 may be used for APV operations to
runways with FALS, RTZL and RCLL when
using an approved HUDLS, or equivalent
approved system, or when conducting a
coupled approach to a DH equal to or greater
than 250 ft.
AMC6 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
DETERMINATION OF RVR/CMV/VIS ---
MINIMA FOR NPA, CAT I —
HELICOPTERS
(a) Helicopters ---
The RVR/CMV/VIS minima for NPA, APV ---
and CAT I operations should be determined as
follows:
(1) For NPA operations operated in ---
performance class 1 (PC1) or performance class
2 (PC2), the minima specified in Table 6.1.H
should apply:
(*See Table 6.1.H: Onshore NPA minima)
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(i) where the missed approach point is within ½
NM of the landing threshold, the approach
minima specified for FALS may be used
regardless of the length of approach lights
available. However, FATO/runway edge lights,
threshold lights, end lights and FATO/runway
markings are still required;
(ii) for night operations, ground lights should
be available to illuminate the FATO/runway
and any obstacles; and
(iii) for single-pilot operations, the minimum
RVR is 800 m or the minima in Table 6.1.H,
whichever is higher.
(2) For CAT I operations operated in PC1 or ---
PC2, the minima specified in Table 6.2.H
should apply:
(*See Table 6.2.H: Onshore CAT I minima)
(i) for night operations, ground light should be
available to illuminate the FATO/runway and
any obstacles;
(ii) for single-pilot operations, the minimum ---
RVR/VIS should be calculated in accordance
with the following additional criteria:
(A) an RVR of less than 800 m should not be
used except when using a suitable autopilot
coupled to an ILS, MLS or GLS, in which case
normal minima apply; and
(B) the DH applied should not be less than 1.25
times the minimum use height for the autopilot.
AMC7 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
CIRCLING OPERATIONS - ---
AEROPLANES
(a) Circling minima ---
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The following standards should apply for ---
establishing circling minima for operations
with aeroplanes:
(1) the MDH for circling operation should not ---
be lower than the highest of:
(i) the published circling OCH for the
aeroplane category;
(ii) the minimum circling height derived from
Table 7; or
(*See Table 7: Circling - aeroplanes MDH and
minimum visibility vs. aeroplane category)
(iii) the DH/MDH of the preceding instrument
approach procedure;
(2) the MDA for circling should be calculated
by adding the published aerodrome elevation to
the MDH, as determined by (a)(1); and
(3) the minimum visibility for circling should ---
be the highest of:
(i) the circling visibility for the aeroplane
category, if published;
(ii) the minimum visibility derived from Table
7; or
(iii) the RVR/CMV derived from Tables 5 and
6.A for the preceding instrument approach
procedure.
(b) Conduct of flight – general: ---
(1) the MDH and OCH included in the
procedure are referenced to aerodrome
elevation;
(2) the MDA is referenced to mean sea level;
(3) for these procedures, the applicable
visibility is the meteorological visibility; and
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(4) operators should provide tabular guidance
of the relationship between height above
threshold and the in-flight visibility required to
obtain and sustain visual contact during the
circling manoeuvre.
(c) Instrument approach followed by visual ---
manoeuvring (circling) without prescribed
tracks
(1) When the aeroplane is on the initial
instrument approach, before visual reference is
stabilised, but not below MDA/H, the aeroplane
should follow the corresponding instrument
approach procedure until the appropriate
instrument MAPt is reached.
(2) At the beginning of the level flight phase at ---
or above the MDA/H, the instrument approach
track determined by radio navigation aids,
RNAV, RNP, ILS, MLS or GLS should be
maintained until the pilot:
(i) estimates that, in all probability, visual
contact with the runway of intended landing or
the runway environment will be maintained
during the entire circling procedure;
(ii) estimates that the aeroplane is within the
circling area before commencing circling; and
(iii) is able to determine the aeroplane’s
position in relation to the runway of intended
landing with the aid of the appropriate external
references.
(3) When reaching the published instrument
MAPt and the conditions stipulated in (c)(2) are
unable to be established by the pilot, a missed
approach should be carried out in accordance
with that instrument approach procedure.
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(4) After the aeroplane has left the track of the ---
initial instrument approach, the flight phase
outbound from the runway should be limited to
an appropriate distance, which is required to
align the aeroplane onto the final approach.
Such manoeuvres should be conducted to
enable the aeroplane:
(i) to attain a controlled and stable descent path
to the intended landing runway; and
(ii) to remain within the circling area and in
such way that visual contact with the runway of
intended landing or runway environment is
maintained at all times.
(5) Flight manoeuvres should be carried out at
an altitude/height that is not less than the
circling MDA/H.
(6) Descent below MDA/H should not be
initiated until the threshold of the runway to be
used has been appropriately identified. The
aeroplane should be in a position to continue
with a normal rate of descent and land within
the touchdown zone.
(d) Instrument approach followed by a visual ---
manoeuvring (circling) with prescribed track
(1) The aeroplane should remain on the initial ---
instrument approach procedure until one of the
following is reached:
(i) the prescribed divergence point to
commence circling on the prescribed track; or
(ii) the MAPt.
(2) The aeroplane should be established on the
instrument approach track determined by the
radio navigation aids, RNAV, RNP, ILS, MLS
or GLS in level flight at or above the MDA/H
at or by the circling manoeuvre divergence
point.
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(3) If the divergence point is reached before the
required visual reference is acquired, a missed
approach should be initiated not later than the
MAPt and completed in accordance with the
instrument approach procedure.
(4) When commencing the prescribed circling
manoeuvre at the published divergence point,
the subsequent manoeuvres should be
conducted to comply with the published routing
and published heights/altitudes.
(5) Unless otherwise specified, once the ---
aeroplane is established on the prescribed
track(s), the published visual reference does not
need to be maintained unless:
(i) required by the State of the aerodrome; or
(ii) the circling MAPt (if published) is reached.
(6) If the prescribed circling manoeuvre has a
published MAPt and the required visual
reference has not been obtained by that point, a
missed approach should be executed in
accordance with (e)(2) and (e)(3).
(7) Subsequent further descent below MDA/H
should only commence when the required
visual reference has been obtained.
(8) Unless otherwise specified in the procedure,
final descent should not be commenced from
MDA/H until the threshold of the intended
landing runway has been identified and the
aeroplane is in a position to continue with a
normal rate of descent to land within the
touchdown zone.
(e) Missed approach ---
(1) Missed approach during the instrument ---
procedure prior to circling:
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(i) if the missed approach procedure is required
to be flown when the aeroplane is positioned on
the instrument approach track defined by radio-
navigation aids RNAV, RNP, or ILS, MLS, and
before commencing the circling manoeuvre, the
published missed approach for the instrument
approach should be followed; or
(ii) if the instrument approach procedure is
carried out with the aid of an ILS, MLS or an
stabilised approach (SAp), the MAPt associated
with an ILS, MLS procedure without glide path
(GP-out procedure) or the SAp, where
applicable, should be used.
(2) If a prescribed missed approach is published
for the circling manoeuvre, this overrides the
manoeuvres prescribed below.
(3) If visual reference is lost while circling to
land after the aeroplane has departed from the
initial instrument approach track, the missed
approach specified for that particular
instrument approach should be followed. It is
expected that the pilot will make an initial
climbing turn toward the intended landing
runway to a position overhead the aerodrome
where the pilot will establish the aeroplane in a
climb on the instrument missed approach
segment.
(4) The aeroplane should not leave the visual ---
manoeuvring (circling) area, which is obstacle
protected, unless:
(i) established on the appropriate missed
approach procedure; or
(ii) at minimum sector altitude (MSA).
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(5) All turns should be made in the same ---
direction and the aeroplane should remain
within the circling protected area while
climbing either:
(i) to the altitude assigned to any published
circling missed approach manoeuvre if
applicable;
(ii) to the altitude assigned to the missed
approach of the initial instrument approach;
(iii) to the MSA;
(iv) to the minimum holding altitude (MHA)
applicable for transition to a holding facility or
fix, or continue to climb to an MSA; or
(v) as directed by ATS.
When the missed approach procedure is
commenced on the ‘downwind’ leg of the
circling manoeuvre, an ‘S’ turn may be
undertaken to align the aeroplane on the initial
instrument approach missed approach path,
provided the aeroplane remains within the
protected circling area.
The commander should be responsible for
ensuring adequate terrain clearance during the
above-stipulated manoeuvres, particularly
during the execution of a missed approach
initiated by ATS.
(6) Because the circling manoeuvre may be
accomplished in more than one direction,
different patterns will be required to establish
the aeroplane on the prescribed missed
approach course depending on its position at
the time visual reference is lost. In particular,
all turns are to be in the prescribed direction if
this is restricted, e.g. to the west/east (left or
right hand) to remain within the protected
circling area.
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(7) If a missed approach procedure is published
for a particular runway onto which the
aeroplane is conducting a circling approach and
the aeroplane has commenced a manoeuvre to
align with the runway, the missed approach for
this direction may be accomplished. The ATS
unit should be informed of the intention to fly
the published missed approach procedure for
that particular runway.
(8) The commander should advise ATS when
any missed approach procedure has been
commenced, the height/altitude the aeroplane is
climbing to and the position the aeroplane is
proceeding towards and / or heading the
aeroplane is established on.
AMC8 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
ONSHORE CIRCLING OPERATIONS - ---
HELICOPTERS
For circling the specified MDH should not be
less than 250 ft, and the meteorological
visibility not less than 800 m.
AMC9 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
VISUAL APPROACH OPERATIONS ---
The operator should not use an RVR of less
than 800 m for a visual approach operation.
AMC10 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
CONVERSION OF REPORTED ---
METEOROLOGICAL VISIBILITY TO
RVR
(a) A conversion from meteorological visibility ---
to RVR/CMV should not be used:
(1) when reported RVR is available;
(2) for calculating take-off minima; and
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(3) for any RVR minima less than 800 m.
(b) If the RVR is reported as being above the
maximum value assessed by the aerodrome
operator, e.g. ‘RVR more than 1 500 m’, it
should not be considered as a reported value for
(a)(1).
(c) When converting meteorological visibility
to RVR in circumstances other than those in (a)
, the conversion factors specified in Table 8
should be used.
AMC11 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome ---
operating minima
EFFECT ON LANDING MINIMA OF ---
TEMPORARILY FAILED OR
DOWNGRADED GROUND EQUIPMENT
(a) General ---
These instructions are intended for use both
pre-flight and in-flight. It is however not
expected that the commander would consult
such instructions after passing 1 000 ft above
the aerodrome. If failures of ground aids are
announced at such a late stage, the approach
could be continued at the commander’s
discretion. If failures are announced before
such a late stage in the approach, their effect on
the approach should be considered as described
in Table 9, and the approach may have to be
abandoned.
(b) Conditions applicable to Tables 9: ---
(1) multiple failures of runway/FATO lights
other than indicated in Table 9 should not be
acceptable;
(2) deficiencies of approach and runway/FATO
lights are treated separately; and
(3) failures other than ILS, MLS affect RVR
only and not DH.
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AMC12 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome
operating minima
VFR OPERATIONS WITH OTHER-
THAN-COMPLEX MOTOR-POWERED
AIRCRAFT
For the establishment of VFR operation
minima, the operator may apply the VFR
operating minima specified in Part-SERA.
Where necessary, the operator may specify in
the OM additional conditions for the
applicability of such minima taking into
account such factors as radio coverage, terrain,
nature of sites for take-off and landing, flight
conditions and ATS capacity.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome
operating minima
ONSHORE AERODROME DEPARTURE The cloud base and visibility should be such as
PROCEDURES — HELICOPTERS to allow the helicopter to be clear of cloud at
take-off decision point (TDP), and for the pilot
flying to remain in sight of the surface until
reaching the minimum speed for flight in
instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)
given in the AFM.
GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome
operating minima
APPROACH LIGHTING SYSTEMS — The following table provides a comparison of
ICAO, FAA ICAO and FAA specifications.
(*See Table 1. Approach lighting systems)
GM3 CAT.OP.MPA.110 Aerodrome
operating minima
SBAS OPERATIONS (a) SBAS CAT I operations with a DH of 200 ft
depend on an SBAS system approved for
operations down to a DH of 200 ft.
(b) The following systems are in operational
use or in a planning phase:
(1) European geostationary navigation overlay
service (EGNOS) operational in Europe;
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(2) wide area augmentation system (WAAS)
operational in the USA;
(3) multi-functional satellite augmentation
system (MSAS) operational in Japan;
(4) system of differential correction and
monitoring (SDCM) planned by Russia;
(5) GPS aided geo augmented navigation
(GAGAN) system, planned by India; and
(6) satellite navigation augmentation system
(SNAS), planned by China.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.110(a) Aerodrome
operating minima
INCREMENTS SPECIFIED BY THE Additional increments to the published minima
COMPETENT AUTHORITY may be specified by the competent authority to
take into account certain operations, such as
downwind approaches and single-pilot
operations.
CAT.OP.MPA.115 Approach flight (a) All approaches shall be flown as stabilised YES
technique — aeroplanes approaches unless otherwise approved by the
competent authority for a particular approach to
a particular runway.
(b) Non-precision approaches ---
(1) The continuous descent final approach
(CDFA) technique shall be used for all non-
precision approaches.
(2) Notwithstanding (1), another approach YES ---
flight technique may be used for a particular
approach/runway combination if approved by
the competent authority. In such cases, the
applicable minimum runway visual range
(RVR):
(i) shall be increased by 200 m for category A
and B aeroplanes and by 400 m for category C
and D aeroplanes; or
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(ii) for aerodromes where there is a public
interest to maintain current operations and the
CDFA technique cannot be applied, shall be
established and regularly reviewed by the
competent authority taking into account the
operator’s experience, training programme and
flight crew qualification.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.115 Approach ---
flight technique - aeroplanes
CONTINUOUS DESCENT FINAL ---
APPROACH (CDFA)
(a) Flight techniques: ---
(1) The CDFA technique should ensure that an ---
approach can be flown on the desired vertical
path and track in a stabilised manner, without
significant vertical path changes during the
final segment descent to the runway. This
technique applies to an approach with no
vertical guidance and controls the descent path
until the DA/DH. This descent path can be
either:
(i) a recommended descent rate, based on
estimated ground speed;
(ii) a descent path depicted on the approach
chart; or
(iii) a descent path coded in the flight
management system in accordance with the
approach chart descent path.
(2) The operator should either provide charts
which depict the appropriate cross check
altitudes/heights with the corresponding
appropriate range information, or such
information should be calculated and provided
to the flight crew in an appropriate and usable
format. Generally, the MAPt is published on
the chart.
(3) The approach should be flown as an SAp.
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(4) The required descent path should be flown
to the DA/H, observing any step-down crossing
altitudes if applicable.
(5) This DA/H should take into account any
add-on to the published minima as identified by
the operator’s management system and should
be specified in the OM (aerodrome operating
minima).
(6) During the descent the pilot monitoring
should announce crossing altitudes as published
fixes and other designated points are crossed,
giving the appropriate altitude or height for the
appropriate range as depicted on the chart. The
pilot flying should promptly adjust the rate of
descent as appropriate.
(7) The operator should establish a procedure to
ensure that an appropriate callout is made when
the aeroplane is approaching DA/H. If the
required visual references are not established at
DA/H, the missed approach procedure is to be
executed promptly.
(8) The descent path should ensure that little or
no adjustment of attitude or thrust/power is
needed after the DA/H to continue the landing
in the visual segment.
(9) The missed approach should be initiated no
later than reaching the MAPt or at the DA/H,
whichever comes first. The lateral part of the
missed approach should be flown via the MAPt
unless otherwise stated on the approach chart.
(b) Flight techniques conditions: ---
(1) The approach should be considered to be ---
fully stabilised when the aeroplane is:
(i) tracking on the required approach path and
profile;
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(ii) in the required configuration and attitude;
(iii) flying with the required rate of descent and
speed; and
(iv) flying with the appropriate thrust/power
and trim.
(2) The aeroplane is considered established on ---
the required approach path at the appropriate
energy for stable flight using the CDFA
technique when:
(i) it is tracking on the required approach path
with the correct track set, approach aids tuned
and identified as appropriate to the approach
type flown and on the required vertical profile;
and
(ii) it is at the appropriate attitude and speed for
the required target rate of descent (ROD) with
the appropriate thrust/power and trim.
(3) Stabilisation during any straight-in
approach without visual reference to the ground
should be achieved at the latest when passing 1
000 ft above runway threshold elevation. For
approaches with a designated vertical profile
applying the CDFA technique, a later
stabilisation in speed may be acceptable if
higher than normal approach speeds are
required by ATC procedures or allowed by the
OM. Stabilisation should, however, be achieved
not later than 500 ft above runway threshold
elevation.
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(4) For approaches where the pilot has visual
reference with the ground, stabilisation should
be achieved not later than 500 ft above
aerodrome elevation. However, the aeroplane
should be stabilised when passing 1 000 ft
above runway threshold elevation; in the case
of circling approaches flown after a CDFA, the
aircraft should be stabilised in the circling
configuration not later than passing 1 000 ft
above the runway elevation.
(5) To ensure that the approach can be flown in ---
a stabilised manner, the bank angle, rate of
descent and thrust/power management should
meet the following performances:
(i) The bank angle should be less than 30
degrees.
(ii) The target rate of descent (ROD) should not
exceed 1 000 fpm and the ROD deviations
should not exceed ± 300 fpm, except under
exceptional circumstances which have been
anticipated and briefed prior to commencing
the approach; for example, a strong tailwind.
Zero ROD may be used when the descent path
needs to be regained from below the profile.
The target ROD may need to be initiated prior
to reaching the required descent point, typically
0.3 NM before the descent point, dependent
upon ground speed, which may vary for each
type/class of aeroplane.
(iii) The limits of thrust/power and the
appropriate range should be specified in the
OM Part B or equivalent document.
(iv) The optimum angle for the approach slope
is 3° and should not exceed 4.5°.
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(v) The CDFA technique should be applied ---
only to approach procedures based on NDB,
NDB/DME, VOR, VOR/DME, LOC,
LOC/DME, VDF, SRA, GNSS/LNAV and
fulfil the following criteria:
(A) the final approach track off-set ≤ 5° except
for Category A and B aeroplanes, where the
approach-track off-set is ≤ 15°; and
(B) a FAF, or another appropriate fix, e.g., final
approach point, where descent initiated is
available; and
(C) the distance from the FAF or another
appropriate fix to the threshold (THR) is less
than or equal to 8 NM in the case of timing; or
(D) the distance to the THR is available by
FMS/GNSS or DME; or
(E) the minimum final-segment of the
designated constant angle approach path should
not be less than 3 NM from the THR unless
approved by the authority.
(7) The CDFA techniques support a common
method for the implementation of flight-
director-guided or auto-coupled RNAV
approaches.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.115 Approach ---
flight technique - aeroplanes
NPA OPERATIONS WITHOUT ---
APPLYING THE CDFA TECHNIQUE
(a) In case the CDFA technique is not used the
approach should be flown to an altitude/height
at or above the MDA/H where a level flight
segment at or above MDA/H may be flown to
the MAPt.
(b) Even when the approach procedure is flown
without the CDFA technique the relevant
procedures for ensuring a controlled and stable
path to MDA/H should be followed.
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(c) In case the CDFA technique is not used ---
when flying an approach, the operator should
implement procedures to ensure that early
descent to the MDA/H will not result in a
subsequent flight below MDA/H without
adequate visual reference. These procedures
could include:
(1) awareness of radio altimeter information
with reference to the approach profile;
(2) terrain awareness warning system (TAWS);
(3) limitation of rate of descent;
(4) limitation of the number of repeated
approaches;
(5) safeguards against too early descents with
prolonged flight at MDA/H; and
(6) specification of visual requirements for the
descent from the MDA/H.
(d) In case the CDFA technique is not used and
when the MDA/H is high, it may be appropriate
to make an early descent to MDA/H with
appropriate safeguards such as the application
of a significantly higher RVR/VIS.
(e) The procedures that are flown with level
flight at/or above MDA/H should be listed in
the OM.
(f) Operators should categorise aerodromes
where there are approaches that require level
flight at/or above MDA/H as B and C. Such
aerodrome categorisation will depend upon the
operator’s experience, operational exposure,
training programme(s) and flight crew
qualification(s).
AMC3 CAT.OP.MPA.115 Approach ---
flight technique - aeroplanes
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OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND ---
INSTRUCTIONS AND TRAINING
(a) The operator should establish procedures
and instructions for flying approaches using the
CDFA technique and not using it. These
procedures should be included in the OM and
should include the duties of the flight crew
during the conduct of such operations.
(b) The operator should at least specify in the ---
OM the maximum ROD for each aeroplane
type/class operated and the required visual
reference to continue the approach below:
(1) the DA/H, when applying the CDFA
technique; and
(2) the MDA/H, when not applying the CDFA
technique.
(c) The operator should establish procedures
which prohibit level flight at MDA/H without
the flight crew having obtained the required
visual references. It is not the intention to
prohibit level flight at MDA/H when
conducting a circling approach, which does not
come within the definition of the CDFA
technique.
(d) The operator should provide the flight crew ---
with unambiguous details of the technique used
(CDFA or not). The corresponding relevant
minima should include:
(1) type of decision, whether DA/H or MDA/H;
(2) MAPt as applicable; and
(3) appropriate RVR/VIS for the approach
operation and aeroplane category.
(e) Training ---
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(1) Prior to using the CDFA technique, each
flight crew member should undertake
appropriate training and checking as required
by Subpart FC of Annex III (ORO.FC). The
operator’s proficiency check should include at
least one approach to a landing or missed
approach as appropriate using the CDFA
technique or not. The approach should be
operated to the lowest appropriate DA/H or
MDA/H, as appropriate; and, if conducted in a
FSTD, the approach should be operated to the
lowest approved RVR. The approach is not in
addition to any manoeuvre currently required
by either Part-FCL or Part-CAT. The provision
may be fulfilled by undertaking any currently
required approach, engine out or otherwise,
other than a precision approach (PA), whilst
using the CDFA technique.
(2) The policy for the establishment of constant
predetermined vertical path and approach
stability is to be enforced both during initial
and recurrent pilot training and checking. The
relevant training procedures and instructions
should be documented in the operations
manual.
(3) The training should emphasise the need to
establish and facilitate joint crew procedures
and crew resource management (CRM) to
enable accurate descent path control and the
provision to establish the aeroplane in a stable
condition as required by the operator’s
operational procedures.
(4) During training, emphasis should be placed ---
on the flight crew’s need to:
(i) maintain situational awareness at all times,
in particular with reference to the required
vertical and horizontal profile;
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(ii) ensure good communication channels
throughout the approach;
(iii) ensure accurate descent-path control ---
particularly during any manually-flown descent
phase. The monitoring pilot should facilitate
good flight path control by:
(A) communicating any altitude/height
crosschecks prior to the actual passing of the
range/altitude or height crosscheck;
(B) prompting, as appropriate, changes to the
target ROD; and
(C) monitoring flight path control below
DA/MDA;
(iv) understand the actions to be taken if the
MAPt is reached prior to the MDA/H;
(v) ensure that the decision for a missed
approach is taken no later than when reaching
the DA/H or MDA/H;
(vi) ensure that prompt action for a missed
approach is taken immediately when reaching
DA/H if the required visual reference has not
been obtained as there may be no obstacle
protection if the missed approach procedure
manoeuvre is delayed;
(vii) understand the significance of using the
CDFA technique to a DA/H with an associated
MAPt and the implications of early missed
approach manoeuvres; and
(viii) understand the possible loss of the
required visual reference due to pitch-
change/climb when not using the CDFA
technique for aeroplane types or classes that
require a late change of configuration and/or
speed to ensure the aeroplane is in the
appropriate landing configuration.
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required
(5) Additional specific training when not using ---
the CDFA technique with level flight at or
above MDA/H
(i) The training should detail: ---
(A) the need to facilitate CRM with appropriate
flight crew communication in particular;
(B) the additional known safety risks associated
with the ‘dive-and-drive’ approach philosophy
which may be associated with non-CDFA;
(C) the use of DA/H during approaches flown
using the CDFA technique;
(D) the significance of the MDA/H and the
MAPt where appropriate;
(E) the actions to be taken at the MAPt and the
need to ensure that the aeroplane remains in a
stable condition and on the nominal and
appropriate vertical profile until the landing;
(F) the reasons for increased RVR/Visibility
minima when compared to the application of
CDFA;
(G) the possible increased obstacle
infringement risk when undertaking level flight
at MDA/H without the required visual
references;
(H) the need to accomplish a prompt missed
approach manoeuvre if the required visual
reference is lost;
(I) the increased risk of an unstable final ---
approach and an associated unsafe landing if a
rushed approach is attempted either from:
(a) inappropriate and close-in acquisition of the
required visual reference; or
(b) unstable aeroplane energy and or flight path
control; and
(J) the increased risk of controlled flight into
terrain (CFIT).
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GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.115 Approach flight
technique — aeroplanes
CONTINUOUS DESCENT FINAL (a) Introduction
APPROACH (CDFA)
(1) Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) is a
major hazard in aviation. Most CFIT accidents
occur in the final approach segment of non-
precision approaches; the use of stabilised-
approach criteria on a continuous descent with
a constant, predetermined vertical path is seen
as a major improvement in safety during the
conduct of such approaches. Operators should
ensure that the following techniques are
adopted as widely as possible, for all
approaches.
(2) The elimination of level flight segments at
MDA close to the ground during approaches,
and the avoidance of major changes in attitude
and power/thrust close to the runway that can
destabilise approaches, are seen as ways to
reduce operational risks significantly.
(3) The term CDFA has been selected to cover
a flight technique for any type of NPA
operation.
(4) The advantages of CDFA are as follows:
(i) the technique enhances safe approach
operations by the utilisation of standard
operating practices;
(ii) the technique is similar to that used when
flying an ILS approach, including when
executing the missed approach and the
associated missed approach procedure
manoeuvre;
(iii) the aeroplane attitude may enable better
acquisition of visual cues;
(iv) the technique may reduce pilot workload;
(v) the approach profile is fuel-efficient;
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(vi) the approach profile affords reduced noise
levels;
(vii) the technique affords procedural
integration with APV operations; and
(viii) when used and the approach is flown in a
stabilised manner, CDFA is the safest approach
technique for all NPA operations.
(b) CDFA
(1) Continuous descent final approach is
defined in Annex I to this Regulation.
(2) An approach is only suitable for application
of a CDFA technique when it is flown along a
nominal vertical profile: a nominal vertical
profile is not forming part of the approach
procedure design, but can be flown as a
continuous descent. The nominal vertical
profile information may be published or
displayed on the approach chart to the pilot by
depicting the nominal slope or range/distance
vs height. Approaches with a nominal vertical
profile are considered to be:
(i) NDB, NDB/DME;
(ii) VOR, VOR/DME;
(iii) LOC, LOC/DME;
(iv) VDF, SRA; or
(v) GNSS/LNAV.
(3) Stabilised approach (SAp) is defined in
Annex I to this Regulation.
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(i) The control of the descent path is not the
only consideration when using the CDFA
technique. Control of the aeroplane’s
configuration and energy is also vital to the safe
conduct of an approach.
(ii) The control of the flight path, described
above as one of the specifications for
conducting an SAp, should not be confused
with the path specifications for using the CDFA
technique. The predetermined path
specification for conducting an SAp are
established by the operator and published in the
operations manual part B.
(iii) The predetermined approach slope
specifications for applying the CDFA technique
are established by the following:
(A) the published ‘nominal’ slope information
when the approach has a nominal vertical
profile; and
(B) the designated final-approach segment
minimum of 3 NM, and maximum, when using
timing techniques, of 8 NM.
(iv) An SAp will never have any level segment
of flight at DA/H or MDA/H as applicable.
This enhances safety by mandating a prompt
missed approach procedure manoeuvre at
DA/H or MDA/H.
(v) An approach using the CDFA technique
will always be flown as an SAp, since this is a
specification for applying CDFA. However, an
SAp does not have to be flown using the CDFA
technique, for example, a visual approach.
CAT.OP.MPA.120 Airborne radar (a) An ARA shall only be undertaken if: ---
approaches (ARAs) for overwater
operations — helicopters
Applicable until 1 July 2018, then deleted
(1) the radar provides course guidance to
ensure obstacle clearance; and
(2) either: ---
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(i) the minimum descent height (MDH) is
determined from a radio altimeter; or
(ii) the minimum descent altitude (MDA) plus
an adequate margin is applied.
(b) ARAs to rigs or vessels under way shall
only be conducted in multi-crew operations.
(c) The decision range shall provide adequate
obstacle clearance in the missed approach from
any destination for which an ARA is planned.
(d) The approach shall only be continued
beyond decision range or below MDA/H when
visual reference with the destination has been
established.
(e) For single-pilot operations, appropriate
increments shall be added to the MDA/H and
decision range.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.120 Airborne ---
radar approaches (ARAs) for overwater
operations – helicopters
Applicable until 1 July 2018, then deleted.
GENERAL ---
(a) Before commencing the final approach the ---
commander should ensure that a clear path
exists on the radar screen for the final and
missed approach segments. If lateral clearance
from any obstacle will be less than 1 NM, the
commander should:
(1) approach to a nearby target structure and
thereafter proceed visually to the destination
structure; or
(2) make the approach from another direction
leading to a circling manoeuvre.
(b) The cloud ceiling should be sufficiently
clear above the helideck to permit a safe
landing.
(c) MDH should not be less than 50 ft above ---
the elevation of the helideck.
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(1) The MDH for an airborne radar approach ---
should not be lower than:
(i) 200 ft by day; or
(ii) 300 ft by night.
(2) The MDH for an approach leading to a ---
circling manoeuvre should not be lower than:
(i) 300 ft by day; or
(ii) 500 ft by night.
(d) MDA may only be used if the radio
altimeter is unserviceable. The MDA should be
a minimum of MDH +200 ft and should be
based on a calibrated barometer at the
destination or on the lowest forecast QNH for
the region.
(e) The decision range should not be less than
¾ NM.
(f) The MDA/H for a single-pilot ARA should
be 100 ft higher than that calculated using (c)
and (d) above. The decision range should not
be less than 1 NM.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.120 Airborne radar
approaches (ARAs) for overwater
operations — helicopters
Applicable until 1 July 2018, then deleted.
GENERAL (a) General
(1) The helicopter ARA procedure may have as
many as five separate segments. These are the
arrival, initial, intermediate, final and missed
approach segments. In addition, the
specifications of the circling manoeuvre to a
landing under visual conditions should be
considered. The individual approach segments
can begin and end at designated fixes.
However, the segments of an ARA may often
begin at specified points where no fixes are
available.
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(2) The fixes, or points, are named to coincide
with the associated segment. For example, the
intermediate segment begins at the intermediate
fix (IF) and ends at the final approach fix
(FAF). Where no fix is available or appropriate,
the segments begin and end at specified points;
for example, intermediate point (IP) and final
approach point (FAP). The order in which this
GM discusses the segments is the order in
which the pilot would fly them in a complete
procedure: that is, from the arrival through
initial and intermediate to a final approach and,
if necessary, the missed approach.
(3) Only those segments that are required by
local conditions applying at the time of the
approach need to be included in a procedure. In
constructing the procedure, the final approach
track, which should be orientated so as to be
substantially into wind should be identified first
as it is the least flexible and most critical of all
the segments. When the origin and the
orientation of the final approach have been
determined, the other necessary segments
should be integrated with it to produce an
orderly manoeuvring pattern that does not
generate an unacceptably high workload for the
flight crew.
(4) Examples of ARA procedures, vertical
profile and missed approach procedures are
contained in Figures 1 to 5.
(b) Obstacle environment
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(1) Each segment of the ARA is located in an
overwater area that has a flat surface at sea
level. However, due to the passage of large
vessels which are not required to notify their
presence, the exact obstacle environment
cannot be determined. As the largest vessels
and structures are known to reach elevations
exceeding 500 ft above mean sea level
(AMSL), the uncontrolled offshore obstacle
environment applying to the arrival, initial and
intermediate approach segments can reasonably
be assumed to be capable of reaching to at least
500 ft AMSL. But, in the case of the final
approach and missed approach segments,
specific areas are involved within which no
radar returns are allowed. In these areas, the
height of wave crests and the possibility that
small obstacles may be present that are not
visible on radar results in an uncontrolled
surface environment that extends to an
elevation of 50 ft AMSL.
(2) Under normal circumstances, the
relationship between the approach procedure
and the obstacle environment is governed
according to the concept that vertical separation
is very easy to apply during the arrival, initial
and intermediate segments, while horizontal
separation, which is much more difficult to
guarantee in an uncontrolled environment, is
applied only in the final and missed approach
segments.
(c) Arrival segment The arrival segment
commences at the last en-route navigation fix,
where the aircraft leaves the helicopter route,
and it ends either at the initial approach fix
(IAF) or, if no course reversal, or
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(d) Initial approach segment The initial
approach segment is only required if a course
reversal, race track, or arc procedure is
necessary to join the intermediate approach
track. The segment commences at the IAF and
on completion of the manoeuvre ends at the IP.
The minimum obstacle clearance (MOC)
assigned to the initial approach segment is 1
000 ft.
(e) Intermediate approach segment The
intermediate approach segment commences at
the IP, or in the case of straight-in approaches,
where there is no initial approach segment, it
commences at the IF. The segment ends at the
FAP and should not be less than 2 NM in
length. The purpose of the intermediate
segment is to align and prepare the helicopter
for the final approach. During the intermediate
segment, the helicopter should be lined up with
the final approach track, the speed should be
stabilised, the destination should be identified
on the radar, and the final approach and missed
approach areas should be identified and verified
to be clear of radar returns. The MOC assigned
to the intermediate segment is 500 ft.
(f) Final approach segment
(1) The final approach segment commences at
the FAP and ends at the missed approach point
(MAPt). The final approach area, which should
be identified on radar, takes the form of a
corridor between the FAP and the radar return
of the destination. This corridor should not be
less than 2 NM wide in order that the projected
track of the helicopter does not pass closer than
1 NM to the obstacles lying outside the area.
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(2) On passing the FAP, the helicopter will
descend below the intermediate approach
altitude, and follow a descent gradient which
should not be steeper than 6.5 %. At this stage,
vertical separation from the offshore obstacle
environment will be lost. However, within the
final approach area the MDA/H will provide
separation from the surface environment.
Descent from 1 000 ft AMSL to 200 ft AMSL
at a constant 6.5 % gradient will involve a
horizontal distance of 2 NM. In order to follow
the guideline that the procedure should not
generate an unacceptably high workload for the
flight crew, the required actions of levelling at
MDH, changing heading at the offset initiation
point (OIP), and turning away at MAPt should
not be planned to occur at the same NM time
from the destination.
(3) During the final approach, compensation for
drift should be applied and the heading which,
if maintained, would take the helicopter
directly to the destination, should be identified.
It follows that, at an OIP located at a range of
1.5 NM, a heading change of 10° is likely to
result in a track offset of 15° at 1 NM, and the
extended centreline of the new track can be
expected to have a mean position lying some
300 - 400 m to one side of the destination
structure. The safety margin built in to the 0.75
NM decision range (DR) is dependent upon the
rate of closure with the destination. Although
the airspeed should be in the range 60- 90 kt
during the final approach, the ground speed,
after due allowance for wind velocity, should
be no greater than 70 kt.
(g) Missed approach segment
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(1) The missed approach segment commences
at the MAPt and ends when the helicopter
reaches minimum en-route altitude. The missed
approach manoeuvre is a ‘turning missed
approach’ which should be of not less than 30°
and should not, normally, be greater than 45°.
A turn away of more than 45° does not reduce
the collision risk factor any further, nor will it
permit a closer DR. However, turns of more
than 45° may increase the risk of pilot
Regulation (EU) 965/2012 on air operations
Annex IV – Part-CAT CAT.OP.MPA I R , A M
C , G M Page 90 | May 2017 disorientation and,
by inhibiting the rate of climb (especially in the
case of an OEI missed approach procedure),
may keep the helicopter at an extremely low
level for longer than is desirable.
(2) The missed approach area to be used should
be identified and verified as a clear area on the
radar screen during the intermediate approach
segment. The base of the missed approach area
is a sloping surface at 2.5 % gradient starting
from MDH at the MAPt. The concept is that a
helicopter executing a turning missed approach
will be protected by the horizontal boundaries
of the missed approach area until vertical
separation of more than 130 ft is achieved
between the base of the area and the offshore
obstacle environment of 500 ft AMSL which
prevails outside the area.
(3) A missed approach area, taking the form of
a 45° sector orientated left or right of the final
approach track, originating from a point 5 NM
short of the destination, and terminating on an
arc 3 NM beyond the destination, will normally
satisfy the specifications of a 30°turning missed
approach.
(h) The required visual reference The visual
reference required is that the destination should
be in view in order that a safe landing may be
carried out.
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(i) Radar equipment During the ARA
procedure, colour mapping radar equipment
with a 120° sector scan and 2.5 NM range scale
selected, may result in dynamic errors of the
following order:
(1) bearing/tracking error ±4.5° with 95 %
accuracy;
(2) mean ranging error -250 m; or
(3) random ranging error ±250 m with 95 %
accuracy
CAT.OP.MPA.125 Instrument departure (a) The operator shall ensure that instrument
and approach procedures departure and approach procedures established
by the State of the aerodrome are used.
(b) Notwithstanding (a), the commander may
accept an ATC clearance to deviate from a
published departure or arrival route, provided
obstacle clearance criteria are observed and full
account is taken of the operating conditions. In
any case, the final approach shall be flown
visually or in accordance with the established
instrument approach procedures.
(c) Notwithstanding (a), the operator may use
procedures other than those referred to in (a)
provided they have been approved by the State
in which the aerodrome is located and are
specified in the operations manual.
CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-based
navigation
The operator shall ensure that, when
performance-based navigation (PBN) is
required for the route or procedure to be flown:
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(a) the relevant PBN navigation specification is
stated in the AFM or other document that has
been approved by the certifying authority as
part of an airworthiness assessment or is based
on such approval; and
(b) the aircraft is operated in conformance with
the relevant navigation specification and
limitations in the AFM or other document
referred above.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-
based navigation
PBN OPERATIONS
For operations where a navigation specification
for performance-based navigation (PBN) has
been prescribed and no specific approval is
required in accordance with SPA.PBN.100, the
operator should:
(a) establish operating procedures specifying:
(1) normal, abnormal and contingency
procedures;
(2) electronic navigation database management;
and
(3) relevant entries in the minimum equipment
list (MEL);
(b) specify the flight crew qualification and
proficiency constraints and ensure that the
training programme for relevant personnel is
consistent with the intended operation; and
(c) ensure continued airworthiness of the area
navigation system.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-
based navigation
MONITORING AND VERIFICATION (a) Preflight and general considerations
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(1) At navigation system initialisation, the
flight crew should confirm that the navigation
database is current and verify that the aircraft
position has been entered correctly, if required.
(2) The active flight plan, if applicable, should
be checked by comparing the charts or other
applicable documents with navigation
equipment and displays. This includes
confirmation of the departing runway and the
waypoint sequence, reasonableness of track
angles and Regulation (EU) 965/2012 on air
operations Annex IV – Part-CAT
CAT.OP.MPA I R , A M C , G M Page 94 |
May 2017 distances, any altitude or speed
constraints, and, where possible, which
waypoints are flyby and which are fly-over.
Where relevant, the RF leg arc radii should be
confirmed.
(3) The flight crew should check that the
navigation aids critical to the operation of the
intended PBN procedure are available.
(4) The flight crew should confirm the
navigation aids that should be excluded from
the operation, if any
(5) An arrival, approach or departure procedure
should not be used if the validity of the
procedure in the navigation database has
expired.
(6) The flight crew should verify that the
navigation systems required for the intended
operation are operational.
(b) Departure
(1) Prior to commencing a take-off on a PBN
procedure, the flight crew should check that the
indicated aircraft position is consistent with the
actual aircraft position at the start of the take-
off roll (aeroplanes) or lift-off (helicopters).
(2) Where GNSS is used, the signal should be
acquired before the take-off roll (aeroplanes) or
lift-off (helicopters) commences.
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(3) Unless automatic updating of the actual
departure point is provided, the flight crew
should ensure initialisation on the runway or
FATO by means of a manual runway threshold
or intersection update, as applicable. This is to
preclude any inappropriate or inadvertent
position shift after take-off.
(c) Arrival and approach
(1) The flight crew should verify that the
navigation system is operating correctly and the
correct arrival procedure and runway (including
any applicable transition) are entered and
properly depicted.
(2) Any published altitude and speed
constraints should be observed
(3) The flight crew should check approach
procedures (including alternate aerodromes if
needed) as extracted by the system (e.g. CDU
flight plan page) or presented graphically on
the moving map, in order to confirm the correct
loading and the reasonableness of the procedure
content.
(4) Prior to commencing the approach
operation (before the IAF), the flight crew
should verify the correctness of the loaded
procedure by comparison with the appropriate
approach charts. This check should include:
(i) the waypoint sequence;
(ii) reasonableness of the tracks and distances
of the approach legs and the accuracy of the
inbound course; and
(iii) the vertical path angle, if applicable.
(d) Altimetry settings for RNP APCH
operations using Baro VNAV
(1) Barometric settings
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(i) The flight crew should set and confirm the
correct altimeter setting and check that the two
altimeters provide altitude values that do not
differ more than 100 ft at the most at or before
the final approach fix (FAF).
(ii) The flight crew should fly the procedure
with:
(A) a current local altimeter setting source
available — a remote or regional altimeter
setting source should not be used; and
(B) the QNH/QFE, as appropriate, set on the
aircraft’s altimeters.
(2) Temperature compensation
(i) For RNP APCH operations to
LNAV/VNAV minima using Baro VNAV:
(A) the flight crew should not commence the
approach when the aerodrome temperature is
outside the promulgated aerodrome temperature
limits for the procedure unless the area
navigation system is equipped with approved
temperature compensation for the final
approach;
(B) when the temperature is within
promulgated limits, the flight crew should not
make compensation to the altitude at the FAF
and DA/H;
(C) since only the final approach segment is
protected by the promulgated aerodrome
temperature limits, the flight crew should
consider the effect of temperature on terrain
and obstacle clearance in other phases of flight.
(ii) For RNP APCH operations to LNAV
minima, the flight crew should consider the
effect of temperature on terrain and obstacle
clearance in all phases of flight, in particular on
any step-down fix
(e) Sensor and lateral navigation accuracy
selection
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(1) For multi-sensor systems, the flight crew
should verify, prior to approach, that the GNSS
sensor is used for position computation.
(2) Flight crew of aircraft with RNP input
selection capability should confirm that the
indicated RNP value is appropriate for the PBN
operation.
AMC3 CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-
based navigation
MANAGAMENT OF THE NAVIGATION (a) For RNAV 1, RNAV 2, RNP 1, RNP 2, and
DATABASE RNP APCH, the flight crew should neither
insert nor modify waypoints by manual entry
into a procedure (departure, arrival or
approach) that has been retrieved from the
database. User-defined data may be entered and
used for waypoint altitude/speed constraints on
a procedure where said constraints are not
included in the navigation database coding
(b) For RNP 4 operations, the flight crew
should not modify waypoints that have been
retrieved from the database. User-defined data
(e.g. for flex-track routes) may be entered and
used.
(c) The lateral and vertical definition of the
flight path between the FAF and the missed
approach point (MAPt) retrieved from the
database should not be revised by the flight
crew
AMC4 CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-
based navigation
DISPLAYS AND AUTOMATION (a) For RNAV 1, RNP 1, and RNP APCH
operations, the flight crew should use a lateral
deviation indicator, and where available, flight
director and/or autopilot in lateral navigation
mode.
(b) The appropriate displays should be selected
so that the following information can be
monitored:
(1) the computed desired path;
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(2) aircraft position relative to the lateral path
(cross-track deviation) for FTE monitoring;
(3) aircraft position relative to the vertical path
(for a 3D operation).
(c) The flight crew of an aircraft with a lateral
deviation indicator (e.g. CDI) should ensure
that lateral deviation indicator scaling (full-
scale deflection) is suitable for the navigation
accuracy associated with the various segments
of the procedure.
(d) The flight crew should maintain procedure
centrelines unless authorised to deviate by air
traffic control (ATC) or demanded by
emergency conditions.
(e) Cross-track error/deviation (the difference
between the area-navigation-system-computed
path and the aircraft-computed position) should
normally be limited to ± ½ time the
RNAV/RNP value associated with the
procedure. Brief deviations from this standard
(e.g. overshoots or undershoots during and
immediately after turns) up to a maximum of 1
time the RNAV/RNP value should be
allowable.
(f) For a 3D approach operation, the flight crew
should use a vertical deviation indicator and,
where required by AFM limitations, a flight
director or autopilot in vertical navigation
mode.
(g) Deviations below the vertical path should
not exceed 75 ft at any time, or half-scale
deflection where angular deviation is indicated,
and not more than 75 ft above the vertical
profile, or halfscale deflection where angular
deviation is indicated, at or below 1 000 ft
above aerodrome level. The flight crew should
execute a missed approach if the vertical
deviation exceeds this criterion, unless the
flight crew has in sight the visual references
required to continue the approach.
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AMC5 CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-
based navigation
VECTORING AND POSITIONING (a) ATC tactical interventions in the terminal
area may include radar headings, ‘direct to’
clearances which bypass the initial legs of an
approach procedure, interceptions of an initial
or intermediate segments of an approach
procedure or the insertion of additional
waypoints loaded from the database.
(b) In complying with ATC instructions, the
flight crew should be aware of the implications
for the navigation system.
(c) ‘Direct to’ clearances may be accepted to
the IF provided that it is clear to the flight crew
that the aircraft will be established on the final
approach track at least 2 NM before the FAF.
(d) ‘Direct to’ clearance to the FAF should not
be acceptable. Modifying the procedure to
intercept the final approach track prior to the
FAF should be acceptable for radar-vectored
arrivals or otherwise only with ATC approval.
(e) The final approach trajectory should be
intercepted no later than the FAF in order for
the aircraft to be correctly established on the
final approach track before starting the descent
(to ensure terrain and obstacle clearance).
(f) ‘Direct to’ clearances to a fix that
immediately precede an RF leg should not be
permitted.
(g) For parallel offset operations en route in
RNP 4 and A-RNP, transitions to and from the
offset track should maintain an intercept angle
of no more than 45° unless specified otherwise
by ATC.
AMC6 CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-
based navigation
ALERTING AND ABORT (a) Unless the flight crew has sufficient visual
reference to continue the approach operation to
a safe landing, an RNP APCH operation should
be discontinued if:
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(1) navigation system failure is annunciated
(e.g. warning flag);
(2) lateral or vertical deviations exceed the
tolerances;
(3) loss of the on-board monitoring and alerting
system
(b) Discontinuing the approach operation may
not be necessary for a multi-sensor navigation
system that includes demonstrated RNP
capability without GNSS in accordance with
the AFM.
(c) Where vertical guidance is lost while the
aircraft is still above 1 000 ft AGL, the flight
crew may decide to continue the approach to
LNAV minima, when supported by the
navigation system.
AMC7 CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-
based navigation
CONTINGENCY PROCEDURES (a) The flight crew should make the necessary
preparation to revert to a conventional arrival
procedure where appropriate. The following
conditions should be considered:
(1) failure of the navigation system components
including navigation sensors, and a failure
effecting flight technical error (e.g. failures of
the flight director or autopilot);
(2) multiple system failures affecting aircraft
performance;
(3) coasting on inertial sensors beyond a
specified time limit; and
(4) RAIM (or equivalent) alert or loss of
integrity function.
(b) In the event of loss of PBN capability, the
flight crew should invoke contingency
procedures and navigate using an alternative
means of navigation.
(c) The flight crew should notify ATC of any
problem with PBN capability.
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(d) In the event of communication failure, the
flight crew should continue with the operation
in accordance with published lost
communication procedures.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.126 Performance-
based navigation
DESCRIPTION (a) For both, RNP X and RNAV X
designations, the ‘X’ (where stated) refers to
the lateral navigation accuracy (total system
error) in NM, which is expected to be achieved
at least 95 % of the flight time by the
population of aircraft operating within the
airspace, route or procedure. For RNP APCH
and A-RNP, the lateral navigation accuracy
depends on the segment.
(b) PBN may be required on notified routes, for
notified procedures and in notified airspace.
RNAV 10
(c) For purposes of consistency with the PBN
concept, this Regulation is using the
designation ‘RNAV 10’ because this
specification does not include on-board
performance monitoring and alerting
(d) However, it should be noted that many
routes still use the designation ‘RNP 10’
instead of ‘RNAV 10’. ‘RNP 10’ was used as
designation before the publication of the fourth
edition of ICAO Doc 9613 in 2013. The terms
‘RNP 10’ and ‘RNAV 10’ should be
considered equivalent
CAT.OP.MPA.130 Noise abatement (a) Except for VFR operations of other-than-
procedures — aeroplanes complex motor-powered aeroplanes, the
operator shall establish appropriate operating
- GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.130 departure and arrival/approach procedures for
each aeroplane type taking into account the
need to minimise the effect of aircraft noise.
(b) The procedures shall: ---
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(1) ensure that safety has priority over noise
abatement; and
(2) be simple and safe to operate with no
significant increase in crew workload during
critical phases of flight.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.130 Noise ---
abatement procedures - aeroplanes
NADP DESIGN ---
(a) For each aeroplane type two departure ---
procedures should be defined, in accordance
with ICAO Doc. 8168 (Procedures for Air
Navigation Services, ‘PANS-OPS’), Volume I:
(1) noise abatement departure procedure one
(NADP 1), designed to meet the close-in noise
abatement objective; and
(2) noise abatement departure procedure two
(NADP 2), designed to meet the distant noise
abatement objective.
(b) For each type of NADP (1 and 2), a single
climb profile should be specified for use at all
aerodromes, which is associated with a single
sequence of actions. The NADP 1 and NADP 2
profiles may be identical.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.130 Noise abatement
procedures — aeroplanes
TERMINOLOGY (a) ‘Climb profile’ means in this context the
vertical path of the NADP as it results from the
pilot’s actions (engine power reduction,
acceleration, slats/flaps retraction).
(b) ‘Sequence of actions’ means the order in
which these pilot’s actions are done and their
timing.
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GENERAL (c) The rule addresses only the vertical profile
of the departure procedure. Lateral track has to
comply with the standard instrument departure
(SID).
EXAMPLE (d) For a given aeroplane type, when
establishing the distant NADP, the operator
should choose either to reduce power first and
then accelerate, or to accelerate first and then
wait until slats/flaps are retracted before
reducing power. The two methods constitute
two different sequences of actions.
(e) For an aeroplane type, each of the two
departure climb profiles may be defined by one
sequence of actions (one for close-in, one for
distant) and two above aerodrome level (AAL)
altitudes/heights. These are:
(1) the altitude of the first pilot’s action
(generally power reduction with or without
acceleration). This altitude should not be less
than 800 ft AAL; or
(2) the altitude of the end of the noise
abatement procedure. This altitude should
usually not be more than 3 000 ft AAL.
These two altitudes may be runway specific
when the aeroplane flight management system
(FMS) has the relevant function which permits
the crew to change thrust reduction and/or
acceleration altitude/height. If the aeroplane is
not FMS-equipped or the FMS is not fitted with
the relevant function, two fixed heights should
be defined and used for each of the two
NADPs.
CAT.OP.MPA.131 Noise abatement (a) The operator shall ensure that take-off and
procedures — helicopters landing procedures take into account the need
to minimise the effect of helicopter noise.
(b) The procedures shall: ---
(1) ensure that safety has priority over noise
abatement; and
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(2) be simple and safe to operate with no
significant increase in crew workload during
critical phases of flight.
CAT.OP.MPA.135 Routes and areas of (a) The operator shall ensure that operations are ---
operation — general only conducted along routes, or within areas,
for which:
(1) ground facilities and services, including
meteorological services, adequate for the
planned operation are provided;
(2) the performance of the aircraft is adequate
to comply with minimum flight altitude
requirements;
(3) the equipment of the aircraft meets the
minimum requirements for the planned
operation; and
(4) appropriate maps and charts are available.
(b) The operator shall ensure that operations are
conducted in accordance with any restriction on
the routes or the areas of operation specified by
the competent authority.
(c) (a)(1) shall not apply to operations under
VFR by day of other-than-complex motor-
powered aircraft on flights that depart from and
arrive at the same aerodrome or operating site.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.135 Routes and
areas of operation — general
RNAV 10 (a) Operating procedures and routes should take
account of the RNAV 10 time limit declared for
the inertial system, if applicable, considering
also the effect of weather conditions that could
affect flight duration in RNAV 10 airspace.
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(b) The operator may extend RNAV 10 inertial
navigation time by position updating. The
operator should calculate, using statistically-
based typical wind scenarios for each planned
route, points at which updates can be made, and
the points at which further updates will not be
possible.
CAT.OP.MPA.136 Routes and areas of The operator shall ensure that operations of
operation — single-engined aeroplanes single-engined aeroplanes are only conducted
along routes, or within areas, where surfaces
are available that permit a safe forced landing
to be executed.
CAT.OP.MPA.137 Routes and areas of The operator shall ensure that: ---
operation — helicopters
(a) for helicopters operated in performance
class 3, surfaces are available that permit a safe
forced landing to be executed, except when the
helicopter has an approval to operate in
accordance with CAT.POL.H.420;
(b) for helicopters operated in performance
class 3 and conducting ‘coastal transit’
operations, the operations manual contains
procedures to ensure that the width of the
coastal corridor, and the equipment carried, is
consistent with the conditions prevailing at the
time.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.137(b) Routes and
areas of operation — helicopters
COASTAL TRANSIT (a) General
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(1) Helicopters operating overwater in
performance class 3 have to have certain
equipment fitted. This equipment varies with
the distance from land that the helicopter is
expected to operate. The aim of this GM is to
discuss that distance, bring into focus what fit
is required and to clarify the operator's
responsibility, when a decision is made to
conduct coastal transit operations.
(2) In the case of operations north of 45N or
south of 45S, the coastal corridor facility may
or may not be available in a particular state, as
it is related to the State definition of open sea
area as described in the definition of hostile
environment.
(3) Where the term ‘coastal transit’ is used, it
means the conduct of operations overwater
within the coastal corridor in conditions where
there is reasonable expectation that:
(i) the flight can be conducted safely in the
conditions prevailing;
(ii) following an engine failure, a safe forced
landing and successful evacuation can be
achieved; and
(iii) survival of the crew and passengers can be
assured until rescue is effected.
(4) Coastal corridor is a variable distance from
the coastline to a maximum distance
corresponding to three minutes’ flying at
normal cruising speed.
(b) Establishing the width of the coastal
corridor
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(1) The maximum distance from land of coastal
transit, is defined as the boundary of a corridor
that extends from the land, to a maximum
distance of up to 3 minutes at normal cruising
speed (approximately 5 - 6 NM). Land in this
context includes sustainable ice (see (i) to (iii)
below) and, where the coastal region includes
islands, the surrounding waters may be
included in the corridor and aggregated with
the coast and each other. Coastal transit need
not be applied to inland waterways, estuary
crossing or river transit.
(i) In some areas, the formation of ice is such
that it can be possible to land, or force land,
without hazard to the helicopter or occupants.
Unless the competent authority Regulation
(EU) 965/2012 on air operations Annex IV –
Part-CAT CAT.OP.MPA I R , A M C , G M
Page 103 | May 2017 considers that operating
to, or over, such ice fields is unacceptable,the
operator may regard that the definition of the
‘land’ extends to these areas.
(ii) The interpretation of the following rules
may be conditional on (i) above:
— CAT.OP.MPA.137(a)(2);
— CAT.IDE.H.290;
CAT.IDE.H.295;
CAT.IDE.H.300; and
CAT.IDE.H.320
(iii) In view of the fact that such featureless and
flat white surfaces could present a hazard and
could lead to white-out conditions, the
definition of land does not extend to flights
over ice fields in the following rules:
— CAT.IDE.H.125(d); and
— CAT.IDE.H.145.
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(2) The width of the corridor is variable from
not safe to conduct operations in the conditions
prevailing, to the maximum of 3 minutes wide.
A number of factors will, on the day, indicate if
it can be used — and how wide it can be. These
factors will include, but not be restricted to, the
following:
(i) meteorological conditions prevailing in the
corridor;
(ii) instrument fit of the aircraft;
(iii) certification of the aircraft — particularly
with regard to floats;
(iv) sea state;
(v) temperature of the water;
(vi) time to rescue; and
(vii) survival equipment carried.
(3) These can be broadly divided into three
functional groups:
(i) those that meet the provisions for safe
flying;
(ii) those that meet the provisions for a safe
forced landing and evacuation; and
(iii) those that meet the provisions for survival
following a forced landing and successful
evacuation.
(c) Provision for safe flying
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(1) It is generally recognised that when flying
out of sight of land in certain meteorological
conditions, such as those occurring in high
pressure weather patterns (goldfish bowl — no
horizon, light winds and low visibility), the
absence of a basic panel (and training) can lead
to disorientation. In addition, lack of depth
perception in these conditions demands the use
of a radio altimeter with an audio voice
warning as an added safety benefit —
particularly when autorotation to the surface of
the water may be required.
(2) In these conditions, the helicopter, without
the required instruments and radio altimeter,
should be confined to a corridor in which the
pilot can maintain reference using the visual
cues on the land.
(d) Provision for a safe forced landing and
evacuation
(1) Weather and sea state both affect the
outcome of an autorotation following an engine
failure. It is recognised that the measurement of
sea state is problematical and when assessing
such conditions, good judgement has to be
exercised by the operator and the commander.
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(2) Where floats have been certificated only for
emergency use (and not for ditching),
operations should be limited to those sea states
that meet the provisions for such use — where
a safe evacuation is possible. Ditching
certification requires compliance with a
comprehensive number of requirements relating
to rotorcraft water entry, flotation and trim,
occupant egress and occupant survival.
Emergency flotation systems, generally fitted to
smaller CS-27 rotorcraft, are approved against
a broad specification that the equipment should
perform its intended function and not hazard
the rotorcraft or its occupants. In practice, the
most significant difference between ditching
and emergency flotation systems is
substantiation of the water entry phase.
Ditching rules call for water entry procedures
and techniques to be established and
promulgated in the AFM. The
fuselage/flotation equipment should thereafter
be shown to be able to withstand loads under
defined water entry conditions which relate to
these procedures. For emergency flotation
equipment, there is no specification to define
the water entry technique and no specific
conditions defined for the structural
substantiation.
(e) Provisions for survival
(1) Survival of crew members and passengers,
following a successful autorotation and
evacuation, is dependent on the clothing worn,
the equipment carried and worn, the
temperature of the sea and the sea state. Search
and rescue (SAR) response/capability
consistent with the anticipated exposure should
be available before the conditions in the
corridor can be considered non-hostile.
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(2) Coastal transit can be conducted (including
north of 45N and south of 45S — when the
definition of open sea areas allows) providing
the provisions of (c) and (d) are met, and the
conditions for a non-hostile coastal corridor are
satisfied.
CAT.OP.MPA.140 Maximum distance (a) Unless approved by the competent authority ---
from an adequate aerodrome for two- in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA),
engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS Subpart F, the operator shall not operate a two-
approval engined aeroplane over a route that contains a
point further from an adequate aerodrome,
- GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.140(c) under standard conditions in still air, than:
(1) for performance class A aeroplanes with ---
either:
(i) a maximum operational passenger seating
configuration (MOPSC) of 20 or more; or
(ii) a maximum take-off mass of 45 360 kg or
more,
the distance flown in 60 minutes at the one-
engine-inoperative (OEI) cruising speed
determined in accordance with (b);
(2) for performance class A aeroplanes with: ---
(i) an MOPSC of 19 or less; and
(ii) a maximum take-off mass less than 45 360
kg,
the distance flown in 120 minutes or, subject to YES
approval by the competent authority, up to 180
minutes for turbo-jet aeroplanes, at the OEI
cruise speed determined in accordance with (b);
(3) for performance class B or C aeroplanes: ---
(i) the distance flown in 120 minutes at the OEI
cruise speed determined in accordance with (b);
or
(ii) 300 NM, whichever is less.
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(b) The operator shall determine a speed for the
calculation of the maximum distance to an
adequate aerodrome for each two-engined
aeroplane type or variant operated, not
exceeding V MO (maximum operating speed)
based upon the true airspeed that the aeroplane
can maintain with one engine inoperative.
(c) The operator shall include the following ---
data, specific to each type or variant, in the
operations manual:
(1) the determined OEI cruising speed; and
(2) the determined maximum distance from an
adequate aerodrome.
(d) To obtain the approval referred to in (a)(2), ---
the operator shall provide evidence that:
(1) the aeroplane/engine combination holds an
extended range operations with two-engined
aeroplanes (ETOPS) type design and reliability
approval for the intended operation;
(2) a set of conditions has been implemented to
ensure that the aeroplane and its engines are
maintained to meet the necessary reliability
criteria; and
(3) the flight crew and all other operations
personnel involved are trained and suitably
qualified to conduct the intended operation.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.140(d) Maximum ---
distance from an adequate aerodrome for
two-engined aeroplanes without an
ETOPS approval
OPERATION OF NON-ETOPS ---
COMPLIANT TWIN TURBO-JET
AEROPLANES WITH MOPSC OF 19 OR
LESS AND MCTOM LESS THAN 45 360
KG BETWEEN 120 AND 180 MINUTES
FROM AN ADEQUATE AERODROME
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(a) For operations between 120 and 180
minutes, due account should be taken of the
aeroplane’s design and capabilities as outlined
below and the operator’s experience related to
such operations. Relevant information should
be included in the operations manual and the
operator’s maintenance procedures. The term
‘the aeroplane’s design’ in this AMC does not
imply any additional type design approval
specifications beyond the applicable original
type certificate (TC) specifications.
(b) Systems capability ---
Aeroplanes should be certified to CS-25 as ---
appropriate or equivalent (e.g. FAR-25). With
respect to the capability of the aeroplane
systems, the objective is that the aeroplane is
capable of a safe diversion from the maximum
diversion distance with particular emphasis on
operations with OEI or with degraded system
capability. To this end, the operator should give
consideration to the capability of the following
systems to support such a diversion:
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(1) Propulsion systems: the aeroplane engine
should meet the applicable specifications
prescribed in CS-25 and CS-E or equivalent
(e.g. FAR-25, FAR-E), concerning engine TC,
installation and system operation. In addition to
the performance standards established by the
Agency or competent authority at the time of
engine certification, the engines should comply
with all subsequent mandatory safety standards
specified by the Agency or competent
authority, including those necessary to maintain
an acceptable level of reliability. In addition,
consideration should be given to the effects of
extended duration single-engine operation (e.g.
the effects of higher power demands such as
bleed and electrical).
(2) Airframe systems: with respect to electrical ---
power, three or more reliable as defined by CS-
25 or equivalent (e.g. FAR-25) and independent
electrical power sources should be available,
each of which should be capable of providing
power for all essential services which should at
least include the following:
(i) sufficient instruments for the flight crew
providing, as a minimum, attitude, heading,
airspeed and altitude information;
(ii) appropriate pitot heating;
(iii) adequate navigation capability;
(iv) adequate radio communication and
intercommunication capability;
(v) adequate flight deck and instrument lighting
and emergency lighting;
(vi) adequate flight controls;
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(vii) adequate engine controls and restart
capability with critical type fuel (from the
stand-point of flame-out and restart capability)
and with the aeroplane initially at the maximum
relight altitude;
(viii) adequate engine instrumentation;
(ix) adequate fuel supply system capability
including such fuel boost and fuel transfer
functions that may be necessary for extended
duration single or dual-engine operation;
(x) such warnings, cautions and indications as
are required for continued safe flight and
landing;
(xi) fire protection (engines and auxiliary
power unit (APU));
(xii) adequate ice protection including
windshield de-icing; and
(xiii) adequate control of the flight crew
compartment and cabin environment including
heating and pressurisation.
The equipment including avionics necessary for
extended diversion times should have the
ability to operate acceptably following failures
in the cooling system or electrical power
systems.
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For single-engine operations, the remaining ---
power electrical, hydraulic, and pneumatic
should continue to be available at levels
necessary to permit continued safe flight and
landing, and to provide those services
necessary for the overall safety of the
passengers and crew. As a minimum, following
the failure of any two of the three electrical
power sources, the remaining source should be
capable of providing power for all of the items
necessary for the duration of any diversion. If
one or more of the required electrical power
sources are provided by an APU, hydraulic
system or air driven generator/ram air turbine
(ADG/RAT), the following criteria should
apply as appropriate:
(A) to ensure hydraulic power (hydraulic motor
generator) reliability, it may be necessary to
provide two or more independent energy
sources;
(B) the ADG/RAT, if fitted, should not require
engine dependent power for deployment; and
(C) the APU should meet the criteria in (b)(3).
(3) APU: the APU, if required for extended
range operations, should be certified as an
essential APU and should meet the applicable
CS-25 and CS-APU provisions or equivalent
(e.g. FAR-25).
(4) Fuel supply system: consideration should
include the capability of the fuel supply system
to provide sufficient fuel for the entire
diversion taking account of aspects such as fuel
boost and fuel transfer.
(c) Engine events and corrective action ---
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(1) All engine events and operating hours
should be reported by the operator to the
airframe and engine supplemental type
certificate (STC) holders as well as to the
competent authority.
(2) These events should be evaluated by the
operator in consultation with the competent
authority and with the engine and airframe
(S)TC holders. The competent authority may
consult the Agency to ensure that world wide
data are evaluated.
(3) Where statistical assessment alone is not
applicable, e.g. where the fleet size or
accumulated flight hours are small, individual
engine events should be reviewed on a case-by-
case basis.
(4) The evaluation or statistical assessment,
when available, may result in corrective action
or the application of operational restrictions.
(5) Engine events could include engine
shutdowns, both on ground and in-flight,
excluding normal training events, including
flameout, occurrences where the intended thrust
level was not achieved or where crew action
was taken to reduce thrust below the normal
level for whatever reason, and unscheduled
removals.
(6) Arrangements to ensure that all corrective
actions required by the Agency are
implemented.
(d) Maintenance ---
The maintenance programme in accordance ---
with Annex I to Regulation (EC) No 2042/2003
(Part-M) should be based upon reliability
programmes including, but not limited to, the
following elements:
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(1) engine oil consumption programmes: such
programmes are intended to support engine
condition trend monitoring; and
(2) engine condition monitoring programme: a
programme for each engine that monitors
engine performance parameters and trends of
degradation that provides for maintenance
actions to be undertaken prior to significant
performance loss or mechanical failure.
(e) Flight crew training ---
Flight crew training for this type of operation ---
should include, in addition to the requirements
of Subpart FC of Annex III (ORO.FC),
particular emphasis on the following:
(1) Fuel management: verifying required fuel
on board prior to departure and monitoring fuel
on board en-route including calculation of fuel
remaining. Procedures should provide for an
independent cross-check of fuel quantity
indicators, e.g. fuel flow used to calculate fuel
burned compared to indicate fuel remaining.
Confirmation that the fuel remaining is
sufficient to satisfy the critical fuel reserves.
(2) Procedures for single and multiple failures
in-flight that may give rise to go/no-go and
diversion decisions - policy and guidelines to
aid the flight crew in the diversion decision
making process and the need for constant
awareness of the closest weather-permissible
alternate aerodrome in terms of time.
(3) OEI performance data: drift down
procedures and OEI service ceiling data.
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(4) Weather reports and flight requirements:
meteorological aerodrome reports (METARs)
and aerodrome forecast (TAF) reports and
obtaining in-flight weather updates on the en-
route alternate (ERA), destination and
destination alternate aerodromes. Consideration
should also be given to forecast winds
including the accuracy of the forecast compared
to actual wind experienced during flight and
meteorological conditions along the expected
flight path at the OEI cruising altitude and
throughout the approach and landing.
(f) Pre-departure check ---
A pre-departure check, additional to the pre-
flight inspection required by Part-M should be
reflected in the operations manual. Flight crew
members who are responsible for the pre-
departure check of an aeroplane should be fully
trained and competent to do it. The training
programme required should cover all relevant
tasks with particular emphasis on checking
required fluid levels.
(g) MEL ---
The MEL should take into account all items
specified by the manufacturer relevant to
operations in accordance with this AMC.
(h) Dispatch/flight planning rules ---
The operator’s dispatch rules should address ---
the following:
(1) Fuel and oil supply: an aeroplane should not ---
be dispatched on an extended range flight
unless it carries sufficient fuel and oil to
comply with the applicable operational
requirements and any additional reserves
determined in accordance with the following:
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(i) Critical fuel scenario - the critical point is ---
the furthest point from an alternate aerodrome
assuming a simultaneous failure of an engine
and the pressurisation system. For those
aeroplanes that are type certificated to operate
above flight level 450, the critical point is the
furthest point from an alternate aerodrome
assuming an engine failure. The operator
should carry additional fuel for the worst case
fuel burn condition (one engine vs. two engines
operating), if this is greater than the additional
fuel calculated in accordance with the fuel
requirements in CAT.OP.MPA, as follows:
(A) fly from the critical point to an alternate ---
aerodrome:
(a) at 10 000 ft;
(b) at 25 000 ft or the single-engine ceiling,
whichever is lower, provided that all occupants
can be supplied with and use oxygen for the
time required to fly from the critical point to an
alternate aerodrome; or
(c) at the single-engine ceiling, provided that
the aeroplane is type certified to operate above
flight level 450;
(B) descend and hold at 1 500 ft for 15 minutes
in international standard atmosphere (ISA)
conditions;
(C) descend to the applicable MDA/DH
followed by a missed approach (taking into
account the complete missed approach
procedure); followed by
(D) a normal approach and landing.
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(ii) Ice protection: additional fuel used when
operating in icing conditions (e.g. operation of
ice protection systems (engine/airframe as
applicable)) and, when manufacturer’s data are
available, take account of ice accumulation on
unprotected surfaces if icing conditions are
likely to be encountered during a diversion.
(iii) APU operation: if an APU has to be used
to provide additional electrical power,
consideration should be given to the additional
fuel required.
(2) Communication facilities: the availability of
communications facilities in order to allow
reliable two-way voice communications
between the aeroplane and the appropriate ATC
unit at OEI cruise altitudes.
(3) Aircraft technical log review to ensure
proper MEL procedures, deferred items, and
required maintenance checks completed.
(4) ERA aerodrome(s): ensuring that ERA
aerodromes are available for the intended route,
within the distance flown in 180 minutes based
upon the OEI cruising speed which is a speed
within the certificated limits of the aeroplane,
selected by the operator and approved by the
competent authority, confirming that, based on
the available meteorological information, the
weather conditions at ERA aerodromes are at
or above the applicable minima for the period
of time during which the aerodrome(s) may be
used.
Table 1: Planning minima
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.140(c) Maximum
distance from an adequate aerodrome for
two-engined aeroplanes without an
ETOPS approval
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ONE-ENGINE-INOPERATIVE (OEI) The OEI cruising speed is intended to be used
CRUISING SPEED solely for establishing the maximum distance
from an adequate aerodrome.
CAT.OP.MPA.145 Establishment of (a) The operator shall establish for all route ---
minimum flight altitudes segments to be flown:
(1) minimum flight altitudes that provide the
required terrain clearance, taking into account
the requirements of Subpart C; and
(2) a method for the flight crew to determine
those altitudes.
(b) The method for establishing minimum flight YES
altitudes shall be approved by the competent
authority.
(c) Where the minimum flight altitudes
established by the operator and a State
overflown differ, the higher values shall apply.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.145(a) ---
Establishment of minimum flight
altitudes
CONSIDERATIONS FOR ---
ESTABLISHING MINIMUM FLIGHT
ALTITUDES
(a) The operator should take into account the ---
following factors when establishing minimum
flight altitudes:
(1) the accuracy with which the position of the
aircraft can be determined;
(2) the probable inaccuracies in the indications
of the altimeters used;
(3) the characteristics of the terrain, such as
sudden changes in the elevation, along the
routes or in the areas where operations are to be
conducted;
(4) the probability of encountering
unfavourable meteorological conditions, such
as severe turbulence and descending air
currents; and
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(5) possible inaccuracies in aeronautical charts.
(b) The operator should also consider: ---
(1) corrections for temperature and pressure
variations from standard values;
(2) ATC requirements; and
(3) any foreseeable contingencies along the
planned route.
AMC1.1 CAT.OP.MPA.145(a) ---
Establishment of minimum flight
altitudes
CONSIDERATIONS FOR ---
ESTABLISHING MINIMUM FLIGHT
ALTITUDES
This AMC provides another means of
complying with the rule for VFR operations of
other-than-complex motor-powered aircraft by
day, compared to that presented in AMC1
CAT.OP.MPA.145(a). The safety objective
should be satisfied if the operator ensures that
operations are only conducted along such
routes or within such areas for which a safe
terrain clearance can be maintained and take
account of such factors as temperature, terrain
and unfavourable meteorological conditions.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.145(a)
Establishment of minimum flight
altitudes
MINIMUM FLIGHT ALTITUDES (a) The following are examples of some of the
methods available for calculating minimum
flight altitudes.
(b) KSS formula:
(1) Minimum obstacle clearance altitude
(MOCA)
(i) MOCA is the sum of:
(A) the maximum terrain or obstacle elevation,
whichever is higher; plus
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(B) 1 000 ft for elevation up to and including 6
000 ft; or
(C) 2 000 ft for elevation exceeding 6 000 ft
rounded up to the next 100 ft.
(ii) The lowest MOCA to be indicated is 2 000
ft.
(iii) From a VOR station, the corridor width is
defined as a borderline starting 5 NM either
side of the VOR, diverging 4 from centreline
until a width of 20 NM is reached at 70 NM
out, thence paralleling the centreline until 140
NM out, thence again diverging 4 until a
maximum width of 40 NM is reached at 280
NM out. Thereafter, the width remains constant
(see Figure 1 - Corridor width from a VOR
station).
(iv) From a non-directional beacon (NDB),
similarly, the corridor width is defined as a
borderline starting 5 NM either side of the
NDB diverging 7 until a width of 20 NM is
reached 40 NM out, thence paralleling the
centreline until 80 NM out, thence again
diverging 7 until a maximum width of 60 NM
is reached 245 NM out. Thereafter, the width
remains constant (see Figure 2 - Corridor width
from an NDB).
(v) MOCA does not cover any overlapping of
the corridor.
(2) Minimum off-route altitude (MORA).
MORA is calculated for an area bounded by
each or every second LAT/LONG square on
the route facility chart (RFC)/terminal approach
chart (TAC) and is based on a terrain clearance
as follows:
(i) terrain with elevation up to 6 000 ft (2 000
m) – 1 000 ft above the highest terrain and
obstructions;
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(ii) terrain with elevation above 6 000 ft (2 000
m) – 2 000 ft above the highest terrain and
obstructions.
(c) Jeppesen formula (see Figure 3)
(1) MORA is a minimum flight altitude
computed by Jeppesen from current operational
navigation charts (ONCs) or world aeronautical
charts (WACs). Two types of MORAs are
charted which are:
(i) route MORAs e.g. 9800a; and
(ii) grid MORAs e.g. 98.
(2) Route MORA values are computed on the
basis of an area extending 10 NM to either side
of route centreline and including a 10 NM
radius beyond the radio fix/reporting point or
mileage break defining the route segment.
(3) MORA values clear all terrain and man-
made obstacles by 1 000 ft in areas where the
highest terrain elevation or obstacles are up to 5
000 ft. A clearance of 2 000 ft is provided
above all terrain or obstacles that are 5 001 ft
and above.
(4) A grid MORA is an altitude computed by
Jeppesen and the values are shown within each
grid formed by charted lines of latitude and
longitude. Figures are shown in thousands and
hundreds of feet (omitting the last two digits so
as to avoid chart congestion). Values followed
by ± are believed not to exceed the altitudes
shown. The same clearance criteria as
explained in (c)(3) apply.
(d) ATLAS formula
(1) Minimum en-route altitude (MEA).
Calculation of the MEA is based on the
elevation of the highest point along the route
segment concerned (extending from
navigational aid to navigational aid) within a
distance on either side of track as specified in
Table 1 below (Table 1 - Minimum safe en-
route altitude)
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(2) The MEA is calculated by adding an
increment to the elevation specified above as
appropriate, following Table 2 below. The
resulting value is adjusted to the nearest 100 ft.
(Table 2 - Increment added to the elevation)
(3) Minimum safe grid altitude (MGA).
Calculation of the MGA is based on the
elevation of the highest point within the
respective grid area. The MGA is calculated by
adding an increment to the elevation specified
above as appropriate, following Table 3 below.
The resulting value is adjusted to the nearest
100 ft.
(e) Lido formula
(1) Minimum terrain clearance altitude
(MTCA)
The MTCA represents an altitude providing
terrain and obstacle clearance for all
airways/ATS routes, all standard terminal
arrival route (STAR) segments up to IAF or
equivalent end point and for selected standard
instrument departures (SIDs).
The MTCA is calculated by Lido and covers
terrain and obstacle clearance relevant for air
navigation with the following buffers:
(i) Horizontal:
(A) for SID and STAR procedures 5 NM either
side of centre line; and
(B) for airways/ATS routes 10 NM either side
of centre line.
(ii) Vertical:
(A) 1 000 ft up to 6 000 ft; and
(B) 2 000 ft above 6 000 ft.
MTCAs are always shown in feet. The lowest
indicated MTCA is 3 100 ft.
(2) Minimum grid altitude (MGA)
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MGA represents the lowest safe altitude which
can be flown off-track. The MGA is calculated
by rounding up the elevation of the highest
obstruction within the respective grid area to
the next 100 ft and adding an increment of
(i) 1 000 ft for terrain or obstructions up to 6
000 ft; and
(ii) 2 000 ft for terrain or obstructions above 6
000 ft.
MGA is shown in hundreds of feet. The lowest
indicated MGA is 2 000 ft. This value is also
provided for terrain and obstacles that would
result in an MGA below 2 000 ft. An exception
is over water areas where the MGA can be
omitted.
CAT.OP.MPA.150 Fuel policy (a) The operator shall establish a fuel policy for YES
the purpose of flight planning and in-flight
replanning to ensure that every flight carries
sufficient fuel for the planned operation and
reserves to cover deviations from the planned
operation. The fuel policy and any change to it
require prior approval by the competent
authority.
(b) The operator shall ensure that the planning ---
of flights is based upon at least:
(1) procedures contained in the operations ---
manual and:
(i) data provided by the aircraft manufacturer;
or
(ii) current aircraft-specific data derived from a
fuel consumption monitoring system; and
(2) the operating conditions under which the ---
flight is to be conducted including:
(i) aircraft fuel consumption data;
(ii) anticipated masses;
(iii) expected meteorological conditions; and
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(iv) air navigation services provider(s)
procedures and restrictions.
(c) The operator shall ensure that the pre-flight ---
calculation of usable fuel required for a flight
includes:
(1) taxi fuel;
(2) trip fuel;
(3) reserve fuel consisting of: ---
(i) contingency fuel;
(ii) alternate fuel, if a destination alternate
aerodrome is required;
(iii) final reserve fuel; and
(iv) additional fuel, if required by the type of
operation; and
(4) extra fuel if required by the commander.
(d) The operator shall ensure that in-flight ---
replanning procedures for calculating usable
fuel required when a flight has to proceed along
a route or to a destination aerodrome other than
originally planned includes:
(1) trip fuel for the remainder of the flight; and
(2) reserve fuel consisting of: ---
(i) contingency fuel;
(ii) alternate fuel, if a destination alternate
aerodrome is required;
(iii) final reserve fuel; and
(iv) additional fuel, if required by the type of
operation; and
(3) extra fuel if required by the commander.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.150(b) Fuel policy ---
PLANNING CRITERIA - AEROPLANES ---
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The operator should base the defined fuel ---
policy, including calculation of the amount of
fuel to be on board for departure, on the
following planning criteria:
(a) Basic procedure ---
The usable fuel to be on board for departure ---
should be the sum of the following:
(1) Taxi fuel, which should not be less than the
amount, expected to be used prior to take-off.
Local conditions at the departure aerodrome
and auxiliary power unit (APU) consumption
should be taken into account.
(2) Trip fuel, which should include: ---
(i) fuel for take-off and climb from aerodrome
elevation to initial cruising level/altitude, taking
into account the expected departure routing;
(ii) fuel from top of climb to top of descent,
including any step climb/descent;
(iii) fuel from top of descent to the point where
the approach is initiated, taking into account the
expected arrival procedure; and
(iv) fuel for approach and landing at the
destination aerodrome.
(3) Contingency fuel, except as provided for in ---
(b), which should be the higher of:
(i) Either: ---
(A) 5 % of the planned trip fuel or, in the event
of in-flight replanning, 5 % of the trip fuel for
the remainder of the flight;
(B) not less than 3 % of the planned trip fuel or,
in the event of in-flight replanning, 3 % of the
trip fuel for the remainder of the flight,
provided that an en-route alternate (ERA)
aerodrome is available;
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(C) an amount of fuel sufficient for 20 minutes
flying time based upon the planned trip fuel
consumption, provided that the operator has
established a fuel consumption monitoring
programme for individual aeroplanes and uses
valid data determined by means of such a
programme for fuel calculation; or
(D) an amount of fuel based on a statistical
method that ensures an appropriate statistical
coverage of the deviation from the planned to
the actual trip fuel. This method is used to
monitor the fuel consumption on each city
pair/aeroplane combination and the operator
uses this data for a statistical analysis to
calculate contingency fuel for that city
pair/aeroplane combination;
(ii) or an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding
speed at 1 500 ft (450 m), above the destination
aerodrome in standard conditions.
(4) Alternate fuel, which should: ---
(i) include: ---
(A) fuel for a missed approach from the
applicable DA/H or MDA/H at the destination
aerodrome to missed approach altitude, taking
into account the complete missed approach
procedure;
(B) fuel for climb from missed approach
altitude to cruising level/altitude, taking into
account the expected departure routing;
(C) fuel for cruise from top of climb to top of
descent, taking into account the expected
routing;
(D) fuel for descent from top of descent to the
point where the approach is initiated, taking
into account the expected arrival procedure;
and
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(E) fuel for executing an approach and landing
at the destination alternate aerodrome;
(ii) where two destination alternate aerodromes
are required, be sufficient to proceed to the
alternate aerodrome that requires the greater
amount of alternate fuel.
(5) Final reserve fuel, which should be: ---
(i) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines,
fuel to fly for 45 minutes; or
(ii) for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to
fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft
(450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions, calculated with the estimated mass
on arrival at the destination alternate aerodrome
or the destination aerodrome, when no
destination alternate aerodrome is required.
(6) The minimum additional fuel, which should ---
permit:
(i) the aeroplane to descend as necessary and ---
proceed to an adequate alternate aerodrome in
the event of engine failure or loss of
pressurisation, whichever requires the greater
amount of fuel based on the assumption that
such a failure occurs at the most critical point
along the route, and
(A) hold there for 15 minutes at 1 500 ft (450
m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions; and
(B) make an approach and landing, except that
additional fuel is only required if the minimum
amount of fuel calculated in accordance with
(a)(2) to (a)(5) is not sufficient for such an
event; and
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(ii) holding for 15 minutes at 1 500 ft (450 m)
above destination aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions, when a flight is operated
without a destination alternate aerodrome.
(7) Extra fuel, which should be at the discretion
of the commander.
(b) Reduced contingency fuel (RCF) procedure ---
If the operator’s fuel policy includes pre-flight
planning to a destination 1 aerodrome
(commercial destination) with an RCF
procedure using a decision point along the
route and a destination 2 aerodrome (optional
refuel destination), the amount of usable fuel,
on board for departure, should be the greater of
(b)(1) or (b)(2):
(1) The sum of: ---
(i) taxi fuel;
(ii) trip fuel to the destination 1 aerodrome, via
the decision point;
(iii) contingency fuel equal to not less than 5 %
of the estimated fuel consumption from the
decision point to the destination 1 aerodrome;
(iv) alternate fuel or no alternate fuel if the
decision point is at less than six hours from the
destination 1 aerodrome and the requirements
of CAT.OP.MPA.180(b)(2), are fulfilled;
(v) final reserve fuel;
(vi) additional fuel; and
(vii) extra fuel if required by the commander.
(2) The sum of: ---
(i) taxi fuel;
(ii) trip fuel to the destination 2 aerodrome, via
the decision point;
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(iii) contingency fuel equal to not less than the
amount calculated in accordance with (a)(3)
above from departure aerodrome to the
destination 2 aerodrome;
(iv) alternate fuel, if a destination 2 alternate
aerodrome is required;
(v) final reserve fuel;
(vi) additional fuel; and
(vii) extra fuel if required by the commander.
(c) Predetermined point (PDP) procedure ---
If the operator’s fuel policy includes planning
to a destination alternate aerodrome where the
distance between the destination aerodrome and
the destination alternate aerodrome is such that
a flight can only be routed via a predetermined
point to one of these aerodromes, the amount of
usable fuel, on board for departure, should be
the greater of (c)(1) or (c)(2):
(1) The sum of: ---
(i) taxi fuel;
(ii) trip fuel from the departure aerodrome to
the destination aerodrome, via the
predetermined point;
(iii) contingency fuel calculated in accordance
with (a)(3);
(iv) additional fuel if required, but not less ---
than:
(A) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines,
fuel to fly for 45 minutes plus 15 % of the
flight time planned to be spent at cruising level
or 2 hours, whichever is less; or
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(B) for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to
fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption
above the destination aerodrome, this should
not be less than final reserve fuel; and
(v) extra fuel if required by the commander.
(2) The sum of: ---
(i) taxi fuel;
(ii) trip fuel from the departure aerodrome to
the destination alternate aerodrome, via the
predetermined point;
(iii) contingency fuel calculated in accordance
with (a)(3);
(iv) additional fuel if required, but not less ---
than:
(A) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines:
fuel to fly for 45 minutes; or
(B) for aeroplanes with turbine engines: fuel to
fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft
(450 m) above the destination alternate
aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, this
should not be less than final reserve fuel; and
(v) extra fuel if required by the commander.
(d) Isolated aerodrome procedure
If the operator’s fuel policy includes planning
to an isolated aerodrome, the last possible point
of diversion to any available en-route alternate
(ERA) aerodrome should be used as the
predetermined point.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.150(b) Fuel policy ---
LOCATION OF THE FUEL EN-ROUTE ---
ALTERNATE (FUEL ERA)
AERODROME
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(a) The fuel ERA aerodrome should be located
within a circle having a radius equal to 20 % of
the total flight plan distance, the centre of
which lies on the planned route at a distance
from the destination aerodrome of 25 % of the
total flight plan distance, or at least 20 % of the
total flight plan distance plus 50 NM,
whichever is greater. All distances should be
calculated in still air conditions (see Figure 1).
(*See Figure 1: Location of the fuel ERA
aerodrome for the purposes of reducing
contingency fuel to 3 %)
AMC3 CAT.OP.MPA.150(b) Fuel policy ---
PLANNING CRITERIA - HELCIOPTERS ---
The operator should base the company fuel ---
policy, including calculation of the amount of
fuel to be carried, on the following planning
criteria:
(a) The amount of: ---
(1) taxi fuel, which should not be less than the
amount expected to be used prior to take-off.
Local conditions at the departure site and APU
consumption should be taken into account;
(2) trip fuel, which should include fuel: ------
(i) for take-off and climb from aerodrome
elevation to initial cruising level/altitude, taking
into account the expected departure routing;
(ii) from top of climb to top of descent,
including any step climb/descent;
(iii) from top of descent to the point where the
approach procedure is initiated, taking into
account the expected arrival procedure; and
(iv) for approach and landing at the destination
site;
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(3) contingency fuel, which should be: ---
(i) for IFR flights, or for VFR flights in a
hostile environment, 10 % of the planned trip
fuel; or
(ii) for VFR flights in a non-hostile
environment, 5 % of the planned trip fuel;
(4) alternate fuel, which should be: ---
(i) fuel for a missed approach from the
applicable MDA/DH at the destination
aerodrome to missed approach altitude, taking
into account the complete missed approach
procedure;
(ii) fuel for a climb from missed approach
altitude to cruising level/altitude;
(iii) fuel for the cruise from top of climb to top
of descent;
(iv) fuel for descent from top of descent to the
point where the approach is initiated, taking
into account the expected arrival procedure;
(v) fuel for executing an approach and landing
at the destination alternate selected in
accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.181; and
(vi) or for helicopters operating to or from
helidecks located in a hostile environment, 10
% of (a)(4)(i) to (v);
(5) final reserve fuel, which should be: ---
(i) for VFR flights navigating by day with
reference to visual landmarks, 20 minutes’ fuel
at best range speed; or
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(ii) for IFR flights or when flying VFR and
navigating by means other than by reference to
visual landmarks or at night, fuel to fly for 30
minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft (450 m)
above the destination aerodrome in standard
conditions calculated with the estimated mass
on arrival above the alternate, or the
destination, when no alternate is required; at
holding speed at 1 500 ft (450 m) above the
destination aerodrome in standard conditions
calculated with the estimated mass on arrival
above the alternate, or the destination, when no
alternate is required;
and ---
(6) extra fuel, which should be at the discretion
of the commander.
(b) Isolated aerodrome IFR procedure ---
If the operator's fuel policy includes planning to ---
an isolated aerodrome flying IFR, or when
flying VFR and navigating by means other than
by reference to visual landmarks, for which a
destination alternate does not exist, the amount
of fuel at departure should include:
(1) taxi fuel;
(2) trip fuel;
(3) contingency fuel calculated in accordance
with (a)(3);
(4) additional fuel to fly for 2 hours at holding
speed, including final reserve fuel; and
(5) extra fuel at the discretion of the
commander.
(c) Sufficient fuel should be carried at all times ---
to ensure that following the failure of an engine
occurring at the most critical point along the
route, the helicopter is able to:
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(1) descend as necessary and proceed to an
adequate aerodrome;
(2) hold there for 15 minutes at 1 500 ft (450
m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions; and
(3) make an approach and landing.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.150(b) Fuel policy
CONTINGENCY FUEL STATISTICAL (a) As an example, the following values of
METHOD — AEROPLANES statistical coverage of the deviation from the
planned to the actual trip fuel provide
appropriate statistical coverage.
(1) 99 % coverage plus 3 % of the trip fuel, if
the calculated flight time is less than 2 hours, or
more than 2 hours and no weather-permissible
ERA aerodrome is available.
(2) 99 % coverage if the calculated flight time
is more than 2 hours and a weather-permissible
ERA aerodrome is available
(3) 90 % coverage if:
(i) the calculated flight time is more than 2
hours;
(ii) a weather-permissible ERA aerodrome is
available; and
(iii) at the destination aerodrome two separate
runways are available and usable, one of which
is equipped with an ILS/MLS, and the weather
conditions are in compliance with
CAT.OP.MPA.180(b)(2), or the ILS/MLS is
operational to CAT II/III operating minima and
the weather conditions are at or above 500 ft
(b) The fuel consumption database used in
conjunction with these values should be based
on fuel consumption monitoring for each
route/aeroplane combination over a rolling 2-
year period.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.150(c)(3)(i) Fuel
policy
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CONTINGENCY FUEL Factors that may influence fuel required on a
particular flight in an unpredictable way
include deviations of an individual aeroplane
from the expected fuel consumption data,
deviations from forecast meteorological
conditions and deviations from planned
routings and/or cruising levels/altitudes.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.150(c)(3)(ii) Fuel
policy
DESTINATION ALTERNATE The departure aerodrome may be selected as
AERODROME the destination alternate aerodrome.
CAT.OP.MPA.151 Fuel policy — (a) Notwithstanding CAT.OP.MPA.150(b) to ---
alleviations (d), for operations of performance class B
aeroplanes the operator shall ensure that the
pre-flight calculation of usable fuel required for
a flight includes:
(i) taxi fuel, if significant;
(ii) trip fuel;
(iii) reserve fuel, consisting of: ---
(A) contingency fuel that is not less than 5 % of
the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight
replanning, 5 % of the trip fuel for the
remainder of the flight; and
(B) final reserve fuel to fly for an additional
period of 45 minutes for reciprocating engines
or 30 minutes for turbine engines;
(iv) alternate fuel to reach the destination
alternate aerodrome via the destination, if a
destination alternate aerodrome is required; and
(v) extra fuel, if specified by the commander.
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(a1) Notwithstanding CAT.OP.MPA.150(b) to
(d), for operations taking off and landing at the
same aerodrome or operating site with ELA2
aeroplanes under VFR by day the operator shall
specify the minimum final reserve fuel in the
OM. This minimum final reserve fuel shall not
be less than the amount needed to fly for a
period of 45 minutes.
(b) Notwithstanding CAT.OP.MPA.150(b) to ---
(d), for helicopters with an MCTOM of 3 175
kg or less, by day and over routes navigated by
reference to visual landmarks or local
helicopter operations, the fuel policy shall
ensure that, on completion of the flight, or
series of flights the final reserve fuel is not less
than an amount sufficient for:
(1) 30 minutes flying time at normal cruising
speed; or
(2) 20 minutes flying time at normal cruising
speed when operating within an area providing
continuous and suitable precautionary landing
sites.
CAT.OP.MPA.155 Carriage of special (a) Persons requiring special conditions, ---
categories of passengers (SCPs) assistance and/or devices when carried on a
flight shall be considered as SCPs including at
least:
(1) persons with reduced mobility (PRMs) who,
without prejudice to Regulation (EC) No
1107/2006, are understood to be any person
whose mobility is reduced due to any physical
disability, sensory or locomotory, permanent or
temporary, intellectual disability or impairment,
any other cause of disability, or age;
(2) infants and unaccompanied children; and
(3) deportees, inadmissible passengers or
prisoners in custody.
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(b) SCPs shall be carried under conditions that
ensure the safety of the aircraft and its
occupants according to procedures established
by the operator.
(c) SCPs shall not be allocated, nor occupy, ---
seats that permit direct access to emergency
exits or where their presence could:
(1) impede crew members in their duties;
(2) obstruct access to emergency equipment; or
(3) impede the emergency evacuation of the
aircraft.
(d) The commander shall be notified in advance
when SCPs are to be carried on board.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.155(b) Carriage of ---
special categories of passengers (SCPs)
PROCEDURES ---
When establishing the procedures for the ---
carriage of SPCs, the operator should take into
account the following factors:
(a) the aircraft type and cabin configuration;
(b) the total number of passengers carried on
board;
(c) the number and categories of SCPs, which
should not exceed the number of passengers
capable of assisting them in case of an
emergency; and
(d) any other factor(s) or circumstances
possibly impacting on the application of
emergency procedures by the operating crew
members.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.155(b) Carriage of The operator procedures on information
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs) provided to the SCP should specify the timing
PROCEDURES TO PROVIDE and methods on how and when the information
INFORMATION TO SCP can be provided.
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AMC3 CAT.OP.MPA.155(b) Carriage of (a) When carrying an unaccompanied child that
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs) is not self-reliant, the operator should assess the
CONDITIONS OF SAFE CARRIAGE FOR safety risks to ensure that the child is assisted in
UNACCOMPANIED CHILDREN case of an emergency situation.
(b) A child under the age of 12 years, separated
from the accompanying adult, who is travelling
in another cabin class, should be considered as
an unaccompanied child in order to ensure that
the child is assisted in case of an emergency
situation
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.155(b) Carriage of
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs)
PROCEDURES TO PROVIDE Providing information only at the time of
INFORMATION TO SCP booking might not be sufficient to ensure that
the SCP is aware of the information at the time
of the flight.
GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.155(b) Carriage of
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs)
INFORMATION PROVIDED TO SCP When establishing procedures on the
information to be provided to an SCP, the
operator should consider informing the SCP
that cabin crew can only assist the SCP once
the cabin has been evacuated. The following
table contains additional information by SCP
category: (see in tabel below: SCP Category
with typre of information)
GM3 CAT.OP.MPA.155(b) Carriage of
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs)
PROCEDURES A passenger capable of assisting in case of an
emergency means a passenger who is not an
SCP and has no other role or private
responsibility that would prevent him/her from
assisting the SCP. For example, an adult
travelling alone has no other role or private
responsibility, unlike a family travelling
together with younger children.
GM4 CAT.OP.MPA.155(b) Carriage of
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs)
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BRIEFING PROCEDURE IN A In a planned emergency, if time permits,
PLANNED EMERGENCY passengers identified by the cabin crew as
capable of assisting an SCP should be briefed
on the assistance they can provide.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.155(c) Carriage of When establishing SCP seating procedures, the
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs) operator should take into account the following
SEATING PROCEDURES factors:
(a) If the SCP travels with an accompanying
passenger, the accompanying passenger should
be seated next to the SCP.
(b) If the SCP is unable to negotiate stairs
within the cabin unaided, he/she should not be
seated on the upper deck of a multi-deck
aircraft if the exits are not certified for
emergency evacuation on both land and water.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.155(c) Carriage of (a) A disability and/or restraint aid that requires
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs) to be secured around the back of the seat should
SEATING ALLOCATION OF SCP WITH not be used if there is a person seated behind
A DISABILITY AND/OR RESTRAINT unless the seating configuration is approved for
AID the use of such devices. This is to avoid the
changed dynamic seat reactions with the
disability and/or restraint aid, which may lead
to head injury of the passenger seated behind.
(b) If the seat design or installation would
prevent head contact of the person seated
behind, then no further consideration is
necessary.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.155(c) Carriage of
Special categories of Passengers (SCPs)
GROUP SEATING (a) Taking into account access to exits, groups
of non-ambulatory SCPs should be seated
throughout the cabin to ensure that each SCP is
surrounded by the maximum number of
passengers capable of assisting in case of an
emergency.
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(b) If non-ambulatory SCPs cannot be evenly
distributed throughout the cabin, the operator
should establish procedures to mitigate the
increased safety risk such as seating of
passengers capable of assisting in case of an
emergency in the vicinity, additional
information or training of cabin crew.
(c) A group of passengers whose physical size
would possibly prevent them from moving
quickly or reaching and passing through an
emergency exit, should not occupy the same
seat row segment to avoid overloading the
structure of the seat.
GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.155(c) Carriage of
Special Categories of Passengers (SCPs)
SEATING ALLOCATION When establishing the procedure on seating of
an SCP, seats should be allocated taking into
account the following: (see the tabel: SCP
category with Seating allocation procedure)
CAT.OP.MPA.160 Stowage of baggage The operator shall establish procedures to ---
and cargo ensure that:
(a) only hand baggage that can be adequately
and securely stowed is taken into the passenger
compartment; and
(b) all baggage and cargo on board that might
cause injury or damage, or obstruct aisles and
exits if displaced, is stowed so as to prevent
movement.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.160 Stowage of ---
baggage and cargo
STOWAGE PROCEDURES ---
Procedures established by the operator to ---
ensure that hand baggage and cargo are
adequately and securely stowed should take
account of the following:
(a) each item carried in a cabin should be
stowed only in a location that is capable of
restraining it;
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(b) weight limitations placarded on or adjacent
to stowages should not be exceeded;
(c) under seat stowages should not be used
unless the seat is equipped with a restraint bar
and the baggage is of such size that it may
adequately be restrained by this equipment;
(d) items should not be stowed in lavatories or
against bulkheads that are incapable of
restraining articles against movement forwards,
sideways or upwards and unless the bulkheads
carry a placard specifying the greatest mass that
may be placed there;
(e) baggage and cargo placed in lockers should
not be of such size that they prevent latched
doors from being closed securely;
(f) baggage and cargo should not be placed
where it can impede access to emergency
equipment; and
(g) checks should be made before take-off,
before landing and whenever the fasten seat
belts signs are illuminated or it is otherwise so
ordered to ensure that baggage is stowed where
it cannot impede evacuation from the aircraft or
cause injury by falling (or other movement) as
may be appropriate to the phase of flight.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.160 Stowage of ---
baggage and cargo
CARRIAGE OF CARGO IN THE ---
PASSENGER COMPARTEMENT
The following should be observed before ---
carrying cargo in the passenger compartment:
(a) for aeroplanes: ---
(1) dangerous goods should not be allowed; and
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(2) a mix of passengers and live animals should
only be allowed for pets weighing not more
than 8 kg and guide dogs;
(b) for aeroplanes and helicopters: ---
(1) the mass of cargo should not exceed the
structural loading limits of the floor or seats;
(2) the number/type of restraint devices and
their attachment points should be capable of
restraining the cargo in accordance with
applicable certification specifications; and
(3) the location of the cargo should be such
that, in the event of an emergency evacuation, it
will not hinder egress nor impair the crew’s
view.
CAT.OP.MPA.165 Passenger seating The operator shall establish procedures to
ensure that passengers are seated where, in the
event that an emergency evacuation is required,
they are able to assist and not hinder evacuation
of the aircraft.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.165 Passenger ---
seating
EMERGENCY EXIT SEATING ---
The operator should make provision so that: ---
(a) a passenger occupies a seat at least on each
side in a seat row with direct access to an
emergency exit (not staffed by a cabin crew
member) during taxiing, take-off and landing
unless this would be impracticable due to a low
number of passengers or might negatively
impact the mass and balance limitations.
(b) those passengers who are allocated seats
that permit direct access to emergency exits
appear to be reasonably fit, strong, and be able
and willing to assist the rapid evacuation of the
aircraft in an emergency after an appropriate
briefing by the crew;
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(c) in all cases, passengers who, because of
their condition, might hinder other passengers
during an evacuation or who might impede the
crew in carrying out their duties, should not be
allocated seats that permit direct access to
emergency exits. If procedures cannot be
reasonably implemented at the time of
passenger ‘check-in’, the operator should
establish an alternative procedure which
ensures that the correct seat allocations will, in
due course, be made.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.165 Passenger ---
seating
ACCESS TO EMERGENCY EXITS ---
The following categories of passengers are ---
among those who should not be allocated to, or
directed to, seats that permit direct access to
emergency exits:
(a) passengers suffering from obvious physical
or mental disability to the extent that they
would have difficulty in moving quickly if
asked to do so;
(b) passengers who are either substantially
blind or substantially deaf to the extent that
they might not readily assimilate printed or
verbal instructions given;
(c) passengers who because of age or sickness
are so frail that they have difficulty in moving
quickly;
(d) passengers who are so obese that they
would have difficulty in moving quickly or
reaching and passing through the adjacent
emergency exit;
(e) children (whether accompanied or not) and
infants;
(f) deportees, inadmissible passengers or
persons in custody; and
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(g) passengers with animals.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.165 Passenger
seating
DIRECT ACCESS ‘Direct access’ means a seat from which a
passenger can proceed directly to the exit
without entering an aisle or passing around an
obstruction.
GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.165 Passenger
seating
EMERGENCY EXIT SEATING When allocating a seat in a seat row with direct
access to an emergency exit, the operator
should consider at least the following:
(a) providing the passenger with the applicable
emergency exit seating restrictions prior to
boarding, or upon assigning a passenger to a
seat, e.g. at the stage of booking, or check-in, or
at the airport;
(b) utilising, as far as practicable, cabin crew
members that are additional to the minimum
required cabin crew complement, or positioning
crew members, if available on board.
CAT.OP.MPA.170 Passenger briefing The operator shall ensure that passengers are: ---
(a) given briefings and demonstrations relating
to safety in a form that facilitates the
application of the procedures applicable in the
event of an emergency; and
(b) provided with a safety briefing card on
which picture-type instructions indicate the
operation of emergency equipment and exits
likely to be used by passengers.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.170 Passenger ---
briefing
PASSENGER BRIEFING ---
Passenger briefings should contain the ---
following:
(a) Before take-off ---
(1) Passengers should be briefed on the ---
following items, if applicable:
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(i) any cabin secured aspects, e.g. required
position of seatbacks, tray tables, footrests,
window blinds, etc. as applicable;
(ii) emergency lighting (floor proximity escape
path markings, exit signs);
(iii) correct stowage of hand baggage and the
importance of leaving hand baggage behind in
case of evacuation;
(iv) the use and stowage of portable electronic
devices;
(v) the location and presentation of the safety
briefing card, the importance of its contents and
the need for passengers to review it prior to
take-off; and
(vi) compliance with ordinance signs,
pictograms or placards, and crew member
instructions; and
(vii) the location and the contents of the safety
briefing card; and
(2) passengers should receive a demonstration ---
of the following:
(i) the use of safety belts or restraint systems,
including how to fasten and unfasten the safety
belts or restraint systems;
(ii) the location of emergency exits;
(iii) the location and use of oxygen equipment,
if required. Passengers should also be briefed to
extinguish all smoking materials when oxygen
is being used; and
(iv) the location and use of life-jackets if
required.
(3) Passengers occupying seats with direct
access to emergency exits not staffed by cabin
crew members should receive an additional
briefing on the operation and use of the exit.
(b) After take-off ---
(1) passengers should be reminded of the ---
following, if applicable:
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(i) use of safety belts or restraint systems
including the safety benefits of having safety
belts fastened when seated irrespective of seat
belt sign illumination; and
(ii) caution when opening overhead
compartments
(c) Before landing ---
(1) passengers should be reminded of the ---
following, if applicable:
(i) use of safety belts or restraint systems;
(ii) any cabin secured aspects, e.g. required
position of seatbacks, tray tables, footrests,
window blinds, etc. as applicable;
(iii) correct stowage of hand baggage and the
importance of leaving hand baggage behind in
case of evacuation;
(iv) the use and stowage of portable electronic
devices; and
(v) the location of the safety briefing card, the
importance of its contents and its review.
(d) After landing ---
(1) passengers should be reminded of the ---
following:
(i) use of safety belts or restraint systems;
(ii) the use and stowage of portable electronic
devices; and.
(iii) caution when opening overhead
compartments
(e) Emergency during flight ---
(1) passengers should be instructed as
appropriate to the circumstances.
(f) Smoking regulations
(1) The operator should determine the
frequency of briefings or reminding passengers
about the smoking regulations.
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AMC1.1 CAT.OP.MPA.170 Passenger ---
briefing
PASSENGER BRIEFING ---
(a) The operator may replace the
briefing/demonstration as set out in AMC1
CAT.OP.MPA.170 with a passenger training
programme covering all safety and emergency
procedures for a given type of aircraft.
(b) Only passengers who have been trained
according to this programme and have flown on
the aircraft type within the last 90 days may be
carried on board without receiving a
briefing/demonstration.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.170 Passenger
briefing
SINGLE-PILOT OPERATIONS
WITHOUT CABIN CREW
For single-pilot operations without cabin crew,
the commander should provide safety briefings
to passengers except during critical phases of
flight and taxiing.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.170(a) Passenger
briefing
BRIEFING OF PASSENGERS (a) The emergency exit briefing should contain
OCCUPYING SEATS WITH DIRECT instructions on the operation of the exit,
ACCESS TO EMERGENCY EXITS NOT assessment of surrounding conditions for the
STAFFED BY CABIN CREW MEMBERS safe use of the exit, and recognition of
emergency commands given by the crew.
(b) Cabin crew should verify that the
passenger(s) is (are) able and willing to assist
the crew in case of an emergency and that the
passenger(s) has (have) understood the
instructions.
GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.170 Passenger
briefing
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SAFETY BRIEFING MATERIAL (a) Safety briefing material may include but is
not limited to an audio-visual presentation,
such as a safety video or a safety briefing card.
Information in the safety briefing material
should be relevant to the aircraft type and the
installed equipment and should be consistent
with the operator’s procedures. Information in
the safety briefing material should be presented
in a clear and unambiguous manner and in a
form easily understandable to passengers.
(b) For those passengers occupying seats with
direct access to emergency exits, the operator
should consider providing a separate briefing
card, which contains a summary of the exit
briefing information.
(c) The safety briefing card should be designed,
and the information should be provided, in a
size easily visible to the passenger. The safety
briefing card should be stowed in a location
from where it is easily visible and reachable to
the seated passenger and from where it cannot
easily fall out. Information should be presented
in a pictographic form and should be consistent
with the placards used in the aircraft. Written
information should be kept to the necessary
minimum. The safety briefing card should only
contain information relevant to safety.
(d) The operator conducting an operation with
no cabin crew should consider including
expanded information, such as location and use
of fire extinguisher, oxygen system if different
from the drop-down system, etc.
(e) The safety video should be structured in a
pace that allows a continuous ability to follow
the information presented. The operator may
consider including sign language or subtitles to
simultaneously complement the soundtrack.
(f) The operator should consider including the
following information in its safety briefing
material:
(1) hand baggage:
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(i) correct versus forbidden stowage locations
(e.g. exits, aisles, etc.);
(2) safety belts and other restraint systems:
(i) when and how to use safety belts and other
restraint systems;
(ii) restraint of infants and children;
(iii) additional installed systems, e.g. airbag;
(3) drop-down oxygen system:
(i) location;
(ii) activation;
(iii) indication of active oxygen supply;
(iv) correct and timely donning of oxygen
mask;
(v) assisting others;
(4) flotation devices:
(i) stowage locations (including if different in
various cabin sections);
(ii) use for adult, child and infant;
(iii) features, e.g. straps, toggles, tubes,
signalling light, whistle;
(iv) when and where to inflate a life jacket;
(v) flotation devices for infants;
(5) emergency exits:
(i) number and location;
(ii) method of operation, including alternative
operation in case of ditching;
(iii) surrounding conditions prior to opening
(e.g. fire, smoke, water level, etc.);
(iv) unusable exit;
(v) alternative egress routes in case of unusable
exit(s);
(vi) leaving hand baggage behind;
(vii) method of egress through exit including
with infants and children;
(viii) awareness of exit height;
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(ix) awareness of propellers;
(6) escape routes: depiction of routes:
(i) to the exits (inside the aircraft);
(ii) movement on a double-deck aircraft;
(iii) via the wing to the ground;
(iv) on the ground away from the aircraft;
(7) assisting evacuation means:
(i) location of available equipment (e.g. life
raft, installed slide/raft, etc.);
(ii) awareness of the evacuation equipment’s
features;
(iii) operation of the available equipment
(activation, detachment, etc.);
(iv) method of boarding the device including
with infants and children;
(v) use of shoes;
(vi) method of evacuation through exits with no
assisting evacuation means;
(8) brace position:
(i) appropriate method to the applicable facing
direction;
(ii) alternative brace positions for e.g. expectant
mothers, passengers with lap-held infants, tall
or large individuals, children, etc.;
(9) portable electronic devices, including spare
batteries:
(i) allowed versus forbidden devices;
(ii) use in various flight phases including
during safety briefing;
(iii) stowage;
(iv) danger of fire in case the device is
damaged;
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(v) the need to call for immediate assistance in
case a device is damaged, hot, produces smoke,
is lost, or falls into the seat structure (including
advice to refrain from manipulating the seat);
(vi) the need to monitor devices during
charging;
(10) cabin secured aspects:
(i) required position of seatbacks, headrests,
tray tables, footrests, window blinds, inseat
video screens and their control gadgets, etc.;
(ii) caution when opening overhead
compartments;
(11) smoking regulations (e.g. phase of flight,
electronic smoking devices, pipes, etc.)
including smoking in the lavatory;
(12) floor proximity escape path marking:
(i) location;
(ii) purpose in case of darkness or smoke;
(13) actions in case of an emergency (e.g.
remove sharp objects, fasten seat belt, open
window blind, etc.);
(14) any other safety aspects.
CAT.OP.MPA.175 Flight preparation (a) An operational flight plan shall be
completed for each intended flight based on
considerations of aircraft performance, other
operating limitations and relevant expected
conditions on the route to be followed and at
the aerodromes/ operating sites concerned.
(b) The flight shall not be commenced unless ---
the commander is satisfied that:
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(1) all items stipulated in 2.a.3 of Annex IV to
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 concerning the
airworthiness and registration of the aircraft,
instrument and equipment, mass and centre of
gravity (CG) location, baggage and cargo and
aircraft operating limitations can be complied
with;
(2) the aircraft is not operated contrary to the
provisions of the configuration deviation list
(CDL);
(3) the parts of the operations manual that are
required for the conduct of the flight are
available;
(4) the documents, additional information and
forms required to be available by
CAT.GEN.MPA.180 are on board;
(5) current maps, charts and associated
documentation or equivalent data are available
to cover the intended operation of the aircraft
including any diversion that may reasonably be
expected;
(6) space-based facilities, ground facilities and
services that are required for the planned flight
are available and adequate;
(7) the provisions specified in the operations
manual in respect of fuel, oil, oxygen,
minimum safe altitudes, aerodrome operating
minima and availability of alternate
aerodromes, where required, can be complied
with for the planned flight;
(7a) any navigational database required for
performance-based navigation is suitable and
current; and
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(8) any additional operational limitation can be
complied with.
(c) Notwithstanding (a), an operational flight ---
plan is not required for operations under VFR
of:
(1) other-than-complex motor-powered
aeroplane taking off and landing at the same
aerodrome or operating site; or
(2) helicopters with an MCTOM of 3 175 kg or
less, by day and over routes navigated by
reference to visual landmarks in a local area as
specified in the operations manual.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.175 Flight
preparation
FLIGHT PREPARATION FOR PBN (a) The flight crew should ensure that RNAV 1,
OPERATIONS RNAV 2, RNP 1 RNP 2, and RNP APCH
routes or procedures to be used for the intended
flight, including for any alternate aerodromes,
are selectable from the navigation database and
are not prohibited by NOTAM.
(b) The flight crew should take account of any
NOTAMs or operator briefing material that
could adversely affect the aircraft system
operation along its flight plan including any
alternate aerodromes.
(c) When PBN relies on GNSS systems for
which RAIM is required for integrity, its
availability should be verified during the
preflight planning. In the event of a predicted
continuous loss of fault Regulation (EU)
965/2012 on air operations Annex IV – Part-
CAT CAT.OP.MPA I R , A M C , G M Page
140 | May 2017 detection of more than five
minutes, the flight planning should be revised
to reflect the lack of full PBN capability for
that period.
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(d) For RNP 4 operations with only GNSS
sensors, a fault detection and exclusion (FDE)
check should be performed. The maximum
allowable time for which FDE capability is
projected to be unavailable on any one event is
25 minutes. If predictions indicate that the
maximum allowable FDE outage will be
exceeded, the operation should be rescheduled
to a time when FDE is available.
(e) For RNAV 10 operations, the flight crew
should take account of the RNAV 10 time limit
declared for the inertial system, if applicable,
considering also the effect of weather
conditions that could affect flight duration in
RNAV 10 airspace. Where an extension to the
time limit is permitted, the flight crew will need
to ensure that en route radio facilities are
serviceable before departure, and to apply radio
updates in accordance with any AFM
limitation.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.175 Flight
preparation
DATABASE SUITABILITY (a) The flight crew should check that any
navigational database required for PBN
operations includes the routes and procedures
required for the flight.
DATABASE CURRENCY (b) The database validity (current AIRAC
cycle) should be checked before the flight.
(c) Navigation databases should be current for
the duration of the flight. If the AIRAC cycle is
due to change during flight, the flight crew
should follow procedures established by the
operator to ensure the accuracy of navigation
data, including the suitability of navigation
facilities used to define the routes and
procedures for the flight.
(d) An expired database may only be used if the
following conditions are satisfied:
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(1) the operator has confirmed that the parts of
the database which are intended to be used
during the flight and any contingencies that are
reasonable to expect are not changed in the
current version;
(2) any NOTAMs associated with the
navigational data are taken into account;
(3) maps and charts corresponding to those
parts of the flight are current and have not been
amended since the last cycle;
(4) any MEL limitations are observed; and
(5) the database has expired by no more than 28
days.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.175(a) Flight ---
preparation
OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN – ---
COMPLEX MOTOR-POWERED
AIRCRAFT
(a) The operational flight plan used and the ---
entries made during flight should contain the
following items:
(1) aircraft registration;
(2) aircraft type and variant;
(3) date of flight;
(4) flight identification;
(5) names of flight crew members;
(6) duty assignment of flight crew members;
(7) place of departure;
(8) time of departure (actual off-block time,
take-off time);
(9) place of arrival (planned and actual);
(10) time of arrival (actual landing and on-
block time);
(11) type of operation (ETOPS, VFR, ferry
flight, etc.);
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(12) route and route segments with
checkpoints/waypoints, distances, time and
tracks;
(13) planned cruising speed and flying times
between check-points/waypoints (estimated and
actual times overhead);
(14) safe altitudes and minimum levels;
(15) planned altitudes and flight levels;
(16) fuel calculations (records of in-flight fuel
checks);
(17) fuel on board when starting engines;
(18) alternate(s) for destination and, where
applicable, take-off and en-route, including
information required in (a)(12) to (15);
(19) initial ATS flight plan clearance and
subsequent reclearance;
(20) in-flight replanning calculations; and
(21) relevant meteorological information.
(b) Items that are readily available in other
documentation or from another acceptable
source or are irrelevant to the type of operation
may be omitted from the operational flight
plan.
(c) The operational flight plan and its use
should be described in the operations manual.
(d) All entries on the operational flight plan
should be made concurrently and be permanent
in nature.
OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN - ---
OTHER-THAN-COMPLEX MOTOR-
POWERED AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS
AND LOCAL OPERATIONS
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An operational flight plan may be established
in a simplified form relevant to the kind of
operation for operations with other-than-
complex motor-powered aircraft as well as
local operations with any aircraft.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.175(b)(5) Flight
preparation
CONVERSION TABLES The documentation should include any
conversion tables necessary to support
operations where metric heights, altitudes and
flight levels are used.
CAT.OP.MPA.180 Selection of (a) Where it is not possible to use the departure ---
aerodromes — aeroplanes aerodrome as a take-off alternate aerodrome
due to meteorological or performance reasons,
the operator shall select another adequate take-
off alternate aerodrome that is no further from
the departure aerodrome than:
(1) for two-engined aeroplanes: ---
(i) one hour flying time at an OEI cruising
speed according to the AFM in still air standard
conditions based on the actual take-off mass; or
(ii) the ETOPS diversion time approved in
accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart
F, subject to any MEL restriction, up to a
maximum of two hours, at the OEI cruising
speed according to the AFM in still air standard
conditions based on the actual take-off mass;
(2) for three and four-engined aeroplanes, two
hours flying time at the OEI cruising speed
according to the AFM in still air standard
conditions based on the actual take-off mass.
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(3) for operations approved in accordance with
Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart L —
SINGLEENGINED TURBINE AEROPLANE
OPERATIONS AT NIGHT OR IN IMC (SET-
IMC), 30 minutes flying time at normal
cruising speed in still air conditions, based on
the actual take-off mass.
In the case of multi-engined aeroplanes, if the
AFM does not contain an OEI cruising speed,
the speed to be used for calculation shall be that
which is achieved with the remaining engine(s)
set at maximum continuous power
(b) The operator shall select at least one ---
destination alternate aerodrome for each
instrument flight rules (IFR) flight unless the
destination aerodrome is an isolated aerodrome
or:
(1) the duration of the planned flight from take-
off to landing or, in the event of in-flight
replanning in accordance with
CAT.OP.MPA.150(d), the remaining flying
time to destination does not exceed six hours;
and
(2) two separate runways are available and
usable at the destination aerodrome and the
appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for
the destination aerodrome indicate that, for the
period from one hour before until one hour
after the expected time of arrival at the
destination aerodrome, the ceiling will be at
least 2 000 ft or circling height + 500 ft,
whichever is greater, and the ground visibility
will be at least 5 km.
(c) The operator shall select two destination ---
alternate aerodromes when:
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(1) the appropriate weather reports and/or
forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate
that during a period commencing one hour
before and ending one hour after the estimated
time of arrival, the weather conditions will be
below the applicable planning minima; or
(2) no meteorological information is available.
(d) The operator shall specify any required
alternate aerodrome(s) in the operational flight
plan.
CAT.OP.MPA.181 Selection of (a) For flights under instrument meteorological
aerodromes and operating sites — conditions (IMC), the commander shall select a
helicopters take-off alternate aerodrome within one hour
flying time at normal cruising speed if it would
Applicable until 01 July 2018, then replaced not be possible to return to the site of departure
by the IR below due to meteorological reasons.
(b) For IFR flights or when flying under VFR ---
and navigating by means other than by
reference to visual landmarks, the commander
shall specify at least one destination alternate
aerodrome in the operational flight plan unless:
(1) the destination is a coastal aerodrome and
the helicopter is routing from offshore;
(2) for a flight to any other land destination, the
duration of the flight and the meteorological
conditions prevailing are such that, at the
estimated time of arrival at the site of intended
landing, an approach and landing is possible
under visual meteorological conditions (VMC);
or
(3) the site of intended landing is isolated and
no alternate is available; in this case, a point of
no return (PNR) shall be determined.
(c) The operator shall select two destination ---
alternate aerodromes when:
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(1) the appropriate weather reports and/or
forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate
that during a period commencing one hour
before and ending one hour after the estimated
time of arrival, the weather conditions will be
below the applicable planning minima; or
(2) no meteorological information is available
for the destination aerodrome.
(d) The operator may select off-shore ---
destination alternate aerodromes when the
following criteria are applied:
(1) an off-shore destination alternate aerodrome
shall be used only after a PNR. Prior to the
PNR, on-shore alternate aerodromes shall be
used;
(2) OEI landing capability shall be attainable at
the alternate aerodrome;
(3) to the extent possible, deck availability shall
be guaranteed. The dimensions, configuration
and obstacle clearance of individual helidecks
or other sites shall be assessed in order to
establish operational suitability for use as an
alternate aerodrome by each helicopter type
proposed to be used;
(4) weather minima shall be established taking
accuracy and reliability of meteorological
information into account;
(5) the MEL shall contain specific provisions
for this type of operation; and
(6) an off-shore alternate aerodrome shall only
be selected if the operator has established a
procedure in the operations manual.
(e) The operator shall specify any required
alternate aerodrome(s) in the operational flight
plan.
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CAT.OP.MPA.181 Selection of (a) For flights under instrument meteorological
aerodromes and operating sites — conditions (IMC), the commander shall select a
helicopters takeoff alternate aerodrome within one hour
flying time at normal cruising spee
Applicable from 01 July 2018. Will replace
the IR above
(b) For IFR flights or when flying under VFR
and navigating by means other than by
reference to visual landmarks, the commander
shall specify at least one destination alternate
aerodrome in the operational flight plan unless:
(1) for a flight to any other land destination, the
duration of the flight and the meteorological
conditions prevailing are such that, at the
estimated time of arrival at the site of intended
landing, an approach and landing is possible
under visual meteorological conditions (VMC);
or
(2) the site of intended landing is isolated and
no alternate is available; in this case, a point of
no return (PNR) shall be determined.
(c) The operator shall select two destination
alternate aerodromes when:
(1) the appropriate weather reports and/or
forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate
that during a period commencing one hour
before and ending one hour after the estimated
time of arrival, the weather conditions will be
below the applicable planning minima; or
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.181(b)(1) Selection ---
of aerodromes and operating sites –
helicopters
Applicable until 01 July 2018, then deleted.
COASTAL AERODROME ---
(a) Any alleviation from the requirement to
select an alternate aerodrome for a flight to a
coastal aerodrome under IFR routing from
offshore should be based on an individual
safety case assessment.
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(b) The following should be taken into account: ---
(1) suitability of the weather based on the
landing forecast for the destination;
(2) the fuel required to meet the IFR
requirements of CAT.OP.MPA.150 less
alternate fuel;
(3) where the destination coastal aerodrome is ---
not directly on the coast it should be:
(i) within a distance that, with the fuel specified
in (b)(2), the helicopter can, at any time after
crossing the coastline, return to the coast,
descend safely and carry out a visual approach
and landing with VFR fuel reserves intact; and
(ii) geographically sited so that the helicopter ---
can, within the rules of the air, and within the
landing forecast:
(A) proceed inbound from the coast at 500 ft
AGL and carry out a visual approach and
landing; or
(B) proceed inbound from the coast on an
agreed route and carry out a visual approach
and landing;
(4) procedures for coastal aerodromes should ---
be based on a landing forecast no worse than:
(i) by day, a cloud base of DH/MDH +400 ft,
and a visibility of 4 km, or, if descent over the
sea is intended, a cloud base of 600 ft and a
visibility of 4 km; or
(ii) by night, a cloud base of 1 000 ft and a
visibility of 5 km;
(5) the descent to establish visual contact with
the surface should take place over the sea or as
part of the instrument approach;
(6) routings and procedures for coastal
aerodromes nominated as such should be
included in the operations manual, Part C;
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(7) the MEL should reflect the requirement for
airborne radar and radio altimeter for this type
of operation; and
(8) operational limitations for each coastal
aerodrome should be specified in the operations
manual.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.181 Selection of
aerodromes and operating sites —
helicopters
This paragraph is applicable until 01 July
2018, then deleted. The rest of GM remains
applicable.
OFFSHORE ALTERNATES When operating offshore, any spare payload
capacity should be used to carry additional fuel
if it would facilitate the use of an onshore
alternate aerodrome.
LANDING FORECAST (a) Meteorological data have been specified
that conform to the standards contained in the
Regional Air Navigation Plan and ICAO Annex
3. As the following meteorological data are
point-specific, caution should be exercised
when associating it with nearby aerodromes (or
helidecks).
(b) Meteorological reports (METARs)
(1) Routine and special meteorological
observations at offshore installations should be
made during periods and at a frequency agreed
between the meteorological authority and the
operator concerned. They should comply with
the provisions contained in the meteorological
section of the ICAO Regional Air Navigation
Plan, and should conform to the standards and
recommended practices, including the desirable
accuracy of observations, promulgated in ICAO
Annex 3.
(2) Routine and selected special reports are
exchanged between meteorological offices in
the METAR or SPECI (aviation selected
special weather report) code forms prescribed
by the World Meteorological Organisation.
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required
(c) Aerodrome forecasts (TAFs)
(1) The aerodrome forecast consists of a
concise statement of the mean or average
meteorological conditions expected at an
aerodrome or aerodrome during a specified
period of validity, which is normally not less
than 9 hours, or more than 24 hours in duration.
The forecast includes surface wind, visibility,
weather and cloud, and expected changes of
one or more of these elements during the
period. Additional elements may be included as
agreed between the meteorological authority
and the operators concerned. Where these
forecasts relate to offshore installations,
barometric pressure and temperature should be
included to facilitate the planning of helicopter
landing and take-off performance.
(2) Aerodrome forecasts are most commonly
exchanged in the TAF code form, and the
detailed description of an aerodrome forecast is
promulgated in the ICAO Regional Air
Navigation Plan and also in ICAO Annex 3,
together with the operationally desirable
accuracy elements. In particular, the observed
cloud height should remain within ±30 % of the
forecast value in 70 % of cases, and the
observed visibility should remain within ±30 %
of the forecast value in 80 % of cases.
(d) Landing forecasts (TRENDS)
(1) The landing forecast consists of a concise
statement of the mean or average
meteorological conditions expected at an
aerodrome or aerodrome during the two-hour
period immediately following the time of issue.
It contains surface wind, visibility, significant
weather and cloud elements and other
significant information, such as barometric
pressure and temperature, as may be agreed
between the meteorological authority and the
operators concerned.
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(2) The detailed description of the landing
forecast is promulgated in the ICAO Regional
Air Navigation Plan and also in ICAO Annex
3, together with the operationally desirable This
paragraph is applicable until 01 July 2018, then
deleted. The rest of GM remains applicable.
Regulation (EU) 965/2012 on air operations
Annex IV – Part-CAT CAT.OP.MPA I R , A M
C , G M Page 146 | May 2017 accuracy of the
forecast elements. In particular, the value of the
observed cloud height and visibility elements
should remain within ±30 % of the forecast
values in 90 % of the cases.
(3) Landing forecasts most commonly take the
form of routine or special selected
meteorological reports in the METAR code, to
which either the code words ‘NOSIG’, i.e. no
significant change expected; ‘BECMG’
(becoming), or ‘TEMPO’ (temporarily),
followed by the expected change, are added.
The 2-hour period of validity commences at the
time of the meteorological report.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.181(d) Selection of ---
aerodromes and operating sites –
helicopters
Applicable until 01 July 2018, then deleted.
OFFSHORE ALTERNATES ---
(a) Offshore alternate helideck landing ---
environment
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required
The landing environment of a helideck that is
proposed for use as an offshore alternate should
be presurveyed and, as well as the physical
characteristics, the effect of wind direction and
strength, and turbulence established. This
information, which should be available to the
commander at the planning stage and in flight,
should be published in an appropriate form in
the operations manual Part C (including the
orientation of the helideck) such that the
suitability of the helideck for use as an offshore
alternate aerodrome can be assessed. The
alternate helideck should meet the criteria for
size and obstacle clearance appropriate to the
performance requirements of the type of
helicopter concerned.
(b) Performance considerations ---
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The use of an offshore alternate is restricted to
helicopters which can achieve OEI in ground
effect (IGE) hover at an appropriate power
rating at the offshore alternate aerodrome.
Where the surface of the offshore alternate
helideck, or prevailing conditions (especially
wind velocity), precludes an OEI IGE, OEI out
of ground effect (OGE) hover performance at
an appropriate power rating should be used to
compute the landing mass. The landing mass
should be calculated from graphs provided in
the relevant Part B of the operations manual.
When arriving at this landing mass, due
account should be taken of helicopter
configuration, environmental conditions and
the operation of systems that have an adverse
effect on performance. The planned landing
mass of the helicopter including crew,
passengers, baggage, cargo plus 30 minutes
final reserve fuel, should not exceed the OEI
landing mass at the time of approach to the
offshore alternate aerodrome.
(c) Weather considerations ---
(1) Meteorological observations ---
When the use of an offshore alternate helideck
is planned, the meteorological observations at
the destination and alternate aerodrome should
be taken by an observer acceptable to the
authority responsible for the provision of
meteorological services. Automatic
meteorological observations stations may be
used.
(2) Weather minima ---
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When the use of an offshore alternate helideck
is planned, the operator should not select a
helideck as a destination or offshore alternate
helideck unless the aerodrome forecast
indicates that, during a period commencing 1
hour before and ending 1 hour after the
expected time of arrival at the destination and
offshore alternate aerodrome, the weather
conditions will be at or above the planning
minima shown in Table 1 below.
(*See Table 1: Planning minima)
(3) Conditions of fog ---
Where fog is forecast, or has been observed
within the last 2 hours within 60 NM of the
destination or alternate aerodrome, offshore
alternate aerodromes should not be used.
(d) Actions at point of no return ---
Before passing the point of no return - which ---
should not be more that 30 minutes from the
destination - the following actions should have
been completed:
(1) confirmation that navigation to the
destination and offshore alternate helideck can
be assured;
(2) radio contact with the destination and
offshore alternate helideck (or master station)
has been established;
(3) the landing forecast at the destination and
offshore alternate helideck have been obtained
and confirmed to be at or above the required
minima;
(4) the requirements for OEI landing (see (b))
have been checked in the light of the latest
reported weather conditions to ensure that they
can be met; and
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(5) to the extent possible, having regard to
information on current and forecast use of the
offshore alternate helideck and on conditions
prevailing, the availability of the offshore
alternate helideck should be guaranteed by the
duty holder (the rig operator in the case of fixed
installations and the owner in the case of
mobiles) until the landing at the destination, or
the offshore alternate aerodrome, has been
achieved or until offshore shuttling has been
completed.
(e) Offshore shuttling ---
Provided that the actions in (d) have been
completed, offshore shuttling, using an offshore
alternate aerodrome, may be carried out.
CAT.OP.MPA.182 Destination alternate
aerodromes — instrument approach
operations
The operator shall ensure that sufficient means
are available to navigate and land at the
destination aerodrome or at any destination
alternate aerodrome in the case of loss of
capability for the intended approach and
landing operation.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.182 Destination
aerodromes — instrument approach
operations
PBN OPERATIONS The pilot-in-command should only select an
aerodrome as a destination alternate aerodrome
if an instrument approach procedure that does
not rely on GNSS is available either at that
aerodrome or at the destination aerodrome.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.182 Destination
aerodromes — instrument approach
operations
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INTENT OF AMC1 (a) The limitation applies only to destination
alternate aerodromes for flights when a
destination alternate aerodrome is required. A
take-off or en route alternate aerodrome with
instrument approach procedures relying on
GNSS may be planned without restrictions. A
destination aerodrome with all instrument
approach procedures relying solely on GNSS
may be used without a destination alternate
aerodrome if the conditions for a flight without
a destination alternate aerodrome are met.
(b) The term ‘available’ means that the
procedure can be used in the planning stage and
complies with planning minima requirements.
CAT.OP.MPA.185 Planning minima for (a) Planning minima for a take-off alternate ---
IFR flights — aeroplanes aerodrome
The operator shall only select an aerodrome as
a take-off alternate aerodrome when the
appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts
indicate that, during a period commencing one
hour before and ending one hour after the
estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the
weather conditions will be at or above the
applicable landing minima specified in
accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110. The
ceiling shall be taken into account when the
only approach operations available are non-
precision approaches (NPA) and/or circling
operations. Any limitation related to OEI
operations shall be taken into account.
(b) Planning minima for a destination ---
aerodrome other than an isolated destination
aerodrome
The operator shall only select the destination ---
aerodrome when:
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(1) the appropriate weather reports and/or ---
forecasts indicate that, during a period
commencing one hour before and ending one
hour after the estimated time of arrival at the
aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or
above the applicable planning minima as
follows:
(i) RVR/visibility (VIS) specified in
accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110; and
(ii) for an NPA or a circling operation, the
ceiling at or above MDH; or
(2) two destination alternate aerodromes are
selected.
(c) Planning minima for a destination alternate ---
aerodrome, isolated aerodrome, fuel en-route
alternate (fuel ERA) aerodrome, en-route
alternate (ERA) aerodrome
The operator shall only select an aerodrome for
one of these purposes when the appropriate
weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that,
during a period commencing one hour before
and ending one hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions
will be at or above the planning minima in
Table 1.
(*See Table 1: Planning minima)
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.185 Planning
minima for IFR flights — aeroplanes
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PLANNING MINIMA FOR ALTERNATE Non-precision minima (NPA) in Table 1 of
AERODROMES CAT.OP.MPA.185 mean the next highest
minima that apply in the prevailing wind and
serviceability conditions. Localiser only
approaches, if published, are considered to be
non-precision in this context. It is
recommended that operators wishing to publish
tables of planning minima choose values that
are likely to be appropriate on the majority of
occasions (e.g. regardless of wind direction).
Unserviceabilities should, however, be fully
taken into account.
As Table 1 does not include planning minima
requirements for APV, lower than standard
(LTS) CAT I and other than standard (OTS)
CAT II operations, the operator may use the
following minima:
(a) for APV operations — NPA or CAT I
minima, depending on the DH/MDH;
(b) for LTS CAT I operations — CAT I
minima; and
(c) for OTS CAT II operations — CAT II
minima.
GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.185 Planning
minima for IFR flights — aeroplanes
AERODROME WEATHER FORECASTS See table “APPLICATION OF AERODROME
FORECASTS (TAF & TREND) TO PRE-
FLIGHT PLANNING (ICAO Annex 3 refers)”
CAT.OP.MPA.186 Planning minima for (a) Planning minima for take-off alternate ---
IFR flights — helicopters aerodrome(s)
- GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.186
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The operator shall only select an aerodrome or
landing site as a take-off alternate aerodrome
when the appropriate weather reports and/or
forecasts indicate that, during a period
commencing one hour before and ending one
hour after the estimated time of arrival at the
take-off alternate aerodrome, the weather
conditions will be at or above the applicable
landing minima specified in accordance with
CAT.OP.MPA.110. The ceiling shall be taken
into account when the only approach operations
available are NPA operations. Any limitation
related to OEI operations shall be taken into
account.
(b) Planning minima for destination aerodrome ---
and destination alternate aerodrome(s)
The operator shall only select the destination ---
and/or destination alternate aerodrome(s) when
the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts
indicate that, during a period commencing one
hour before and ending one hour after the
estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome or
operating site, the weather conditions will be at
or above the applicable planning minima as
follows:
(1) except as provided in ---
CAT.OP.MPA.181(d), planning minima for a
destination aerodrome shall be:
(i) RVR/VIS specified in accordance with
CAT.OP.MPA.110; and
(ii) for NPA operations, the ceiling at or above
MDH;
(2) planning minima for destination alternate
aerodrome(s) are as shown in Table 1.
(*See Table 1 Planning minima destination
alternate aerodrome)
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GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.186 Planning
minima for IFR flights — helicopters
PLANNING MINIMA FOR ALTERNATE Non-precision minima (NPA) in Table 1 of
AERODROMES CAT.OP.MPA.186 mean the next highest
minima that apply in the prevailing wind and
serviceability conditions. Localiser only
approaches, if published, are considered to be
non-precision in this context. It is
recommended that operators wishing to publish
tables of planning minima choose values that
are likely to be appropriate on the majority of
occasions (e.g. regardless of wind direction).
Unserviceabilities should, however, be fully
taken into account.
As Table 1 does not include planning minima
requirements for APV, LTS CAT I and OTS
CAT II operations, the operator may use the
following minima:
(a) for APV operations — NPA or CAT I
minima, depending on the DH/MDH;
(b) for LTS CAT I operations — CAT I
minima; and
(c) for OTS CAT II operations — CAT II
minima.
CAT.OP.MPA.190 Submission of the (a) If an ATS flight plan is not submitted
ATS flight plan because it is not required by the rules of the air,
adequate information shall be deposited in
order to permit alerting services to be activated
if required.
(b) When operating from a site where it is
impossible to submit an ATS flight plan, the
ATS flight plan shall be transmitted as soon as
possible after take-off by the commander or the
operator.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.190 Submission of ---
the ATS flight plan
FLIGHTS WITHOUT ATS FLIGHT PLAN ---
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(a) When unable to submit or to close the ATS
flight plan due to lack of ATS facilities or any
other means of communications to ATS, the
operator should establish procedures,
instructions and a list of nominated persons to
be responsible for alerting search and rescue
services.
(b) To ensure that each flight is located at all ---
times, these instructions should:
(1) provide the nominated person with at least
the information required to be included in a
VFR flight plan, and the location, date and
estimated time for re-establishing
communications;
(2) if an aircraft is overdue or missing, provide
for notification to the appropriate ATS or
search and rescue facility; and
(3) provide that the information will be retained
at a designated place until the completion of the
flight.
CAT.OP.MPA.195 Refuelling/defuelling (a) An aircraft shall not be refuelled/defuelled
with passengers embarking, on board or with Avgas (aviation gasoline) or wide-cut type
disembarking fuel or a mixture of these types of fuel, when
passengers are embarking, on board or
disembarking.
(b) For all other types of fuel, necessary
precautions shall be taken and the aircraft shall
be properly manned by qualified personnel
ready to initiate and direct an evacuation of the
aircraft by the most practical and expeditious
means available.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.195 ---
Refuelling/defuelling with passengers
embarking, on board or disembarking
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES - ---
GENERAL
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(a) When refuelling/defuelling with passengers
on board, ground servicing activities and work
inside the aircraft, such as catering and
cleaning, should be conducted in such a manner
that they do not create a hazard and allow
emergency evacuation to take place through
those aisles and exits intended for emergency
evacuation.
(b) The deployment of integral aircraft stairs or
the opening of emergency exits as a
prerequisite to refuelling is not necessarily
required.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES -
AEROPLANES
(c) Operational procedures should specify that ---
at least the following precautions are taken:
(1) one qualified person should remain at a
specified location during fuelling operations
with passengers on board. This qualified person
should be capable of handling emergency
procedures concerning fire protection and fire-
fighting, handling communications and
initiating and directing an evacuation;
(2) two-way communication should be
established and should remain available by the
aeroplane's inter-communication system or
other suitable means between the ground crew
supervising the refuelling and the qualified
personnel on board the aeroplane; the involved
personnel should remain within easy reach of
the system of communication;
(3) crew, personnel and passengers should be
warned that re/defuelling will take place;
(4) ‘Fasten Seat Belts’ signs should be off;
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(5) ‘NO SMOKING’ signs should be on,
together with interior lighting to enable
emergency exits to be identified;
(6) passengers should be instructed to unfasten
their seat belts and refrain from smoking;
(7) the minimum required number of cabin
crew should be on board and be prepared for an
immediate emergency evacuation;
(8) if the presence of fuel vapour is detected
inside the aeroplane, or any other hazard arises
during re/defuelling, fuelling should be stopped
immediately;
(9) the ground area beneath the exits intended
for emergency evacuation and slide deployment
areas should be kept clear at doors where stairs
are not in position for use in the event of
evacuation; and
(10) provision is made for a safe and rapid
evacuation.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES -
HELICOPTERS
(d) Operational procedures should specify that ---
at least the following precautions are taken:
(1) door(s) on the refuelling side of the
helicopter remain closed;
(2) door(s) on the non-refuelling side of the
helicopter remain open, weather permitting;
(3) fire-fighting facilities of the appropriate
scale be positioned so as to be immediately
available in the event of a fire;
(4) sufficient personnel be immediately
available to move passengers clear of the
helicopter in the event of a fire;
(5) sufficient qualified personnel be on board
and be prepared for an immediate emergency
evacuation;
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(6) if the presence of fuel vapour is detected
inside the helicopter, or any other hazard arises
during refuelling/defuelling, fuelling be
stopped immediately;
(7) the ground area beneath the exits intended
for emergency evacuation be kept clear; and
(8) provision is made for a safe and rapid
evacuation.
CAT.OP.MPA.200 Refuelling/defuelling Refuelling/defuelling with wide-cut fuel shall
with wide-cut fuel only be conducted if the operator has
established appropriate procedures taking into
- GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.200 account the high risk of using wide-cut fuel
types.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.200
Refuelling/defuelling with wide-cut fuel
PROCEDURES (a) ‘Wide-cut fuel’ (designated JET B, JP-4 or
AVTAG) is an aviation turbine fuel that falls
between gasoline and kerosene in the
distillation range and consequently, compared
to kerosene (JET A or JET A1), it has the
properties of higher volatility (vapour
pressure), lower flash point and lower freezing
point.
(b) Wherever possible, the operator should
avoid the use of wide-cut fuel types. If a
situation arises such that only wide-cut fuels
are available for refuelling/defuelling, operators
should be aware that mixtures of wide-cut fuels
and kerosene turbine fuels can result in the
air/fuel mixture in the tank being in the
combustible range at ambient temperatures.
The extra precautions set out below are
advisable to avoid arcing in the tank due to
electrostatic discharge. The risk of this type of
arcing can be minimised by the use of a static
dissipation additive in the fuel. When this
additive is present in the proportions stated in
the fuel specification, the normal fuelling
precautions set out below are considered
adequate.
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(c) Wide-cut fuel is considered to be ‘involved’
when it is being supplied or when it is already
present in aircraft fuel tanks.
(d) When wide-cut fuel has been used, this
should be recorded in the technical log. The
next two uplifts of fuel should be treated as
though they too involved the use of wide-cut
fuel.
(e) When refuelling/defuelling with turbine
fuels not containing a static dissipator, and
where widecut fuels are involved, a substantial
reduction on fuelling flow rate is advisable.
Reduced flow rate, as recommended by fuel
suppliers and/or aeroplane manufacturers, has
the following benefits:
(1) it allows more time for any static charge
build-up in the fuelling equipment to dissipate
before the fuel enters the tank;
(2) it reduces any charge which may build up
due to splashing; and
(3) until the fuel inlet point is immersed, it
reduces misting in the tank and consequently
the extension of the flammable range of the
fuel.
(f) The flow rate reduction necessary is
dependent upon the fuelling equipment in use
and the type of filtration employed on the
aeroplane fuelling distribution system. It is
difficult, therefore, to quote precise flow rates.
Reduction in flow rate is advisable whether
pressure fuelling or overwing fuelling is
employed.
(g) With over-wing fuelling, splashing should
be avoided by making sure that the delivery
nozzle extends as far as practicable into the
tank. Caution should be exercised to avoid
damaging bag tanks with the nozzle.
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CAT.OP.MPA.205 Push back and towing Push back and towing procedures specified by
— aeroplanes the operator shall be conducted in accordance
with established aviation standards and
procedures.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.205 Push back and ---
towing - aeroplanes
BARLESS TOWING ---
(a) Barless towing should be based on the
applicable SAE ARP (Aerospace
Recommended Practices), i.e.
4852B/4853B/5283/5284/5285 (as amended).
(b) Pre- or post-taxi positioning of the ---
aeroplanes should only be executed by barless
towing if one of the following conditions are
met:
(1) an aeroplane is protected by its own design
from damage to the nose wheel steering
system;
(2) a system/procedure is provided to alert the
flight crew that damage referred to in (b)(1)
may have or has occurred;
(3) the towing vehicle is designed to prevent
damage to the aeroplane type; or
(4) the aeroplane manufacturer has published
procedures and these are included in the
operations manual.
CAT.OP.MPA.210 Crew members at (a) Flight crew members ---
stations
(1) During take-off and landing each flight
crew member required to be on duty in the
flight crew compartment shall be at the
assigned station.
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(2) During all other phases of flight each flight
crew member required to be on duty in the
flight crew compartment shall remain at the
assigned station, unless absence is necessary
for the performance of duties in connection
with the operation or for physiological needs,
provided at least one suitably qualified pilot
remains at the controls of the aircraft at all
times.
(3) During all phases of flight each flight crew
member required to be on duty in the flight
crew compartment shall remain alert. If a lack
of alertness is encountered, appropriate
countermeasures shall be used. If unexpected
fatigue is experienced, a controlled rest
procedure, organised by the commander, may
be used if workload permits. Controlled rest
taken in this way shall not be considered to be
part of a rest period for purposes of calculating
flight time limitations nor used to justify any
extension of the duty period.
(b) Cabin crew members ---
During critical phases of flight, each cabin crew
member shall be seated at the assigned station
and shall not perform any activities other than
those required for the safe operation of the
aircraft.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.210(b) Crew ---
members at stations
CABIN CREW SEATING POSITIONS ---
(a) When determining cabin crew seating ---
positions, the operator should ensure that they
are:
(1) close to a floor level door/exit;
(2) provided with a good view of the area(s) of
the passenger cabin for which the cabin crew
member is responsible; and
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(3) evenly distributed throughout the cabin, in
the above order of priority.
(b) Item (a) should not be taken as implying
that, in the event of there being more cabin
crew stations than required cabin crew, the
number of cabin crew members should be
increased.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.210 Crew members
at stations
MITIGATING MEASURES — (a) This GM addresses controlled rest taken by
CONTROLLED REST the minimum certified flight crew. It is not
related to planned in-flight rest by members of
an augmented crew.
(b) Although flight crew members should stay
alert at all times during flight, unexpected
fatigue can occur as a result of sleep
disturbance and circadian disruption. To cover
for this unexpected fatigue, and to regain a high
level of alertness, a controlled rest procedure in
the flight crew compartment, organised by the
commander may be used, if workload permits
and a controlled rest procedure is described in
the operations manual. ‘Controlled rest’ means
a period of time ‘off task’ that may include
actual sleep. The use of controlled rest has been
shown to significantly increase the levels of
alertness during the later phases of flight,
particularly after the top of descent, and is
considered to be good use of crew resource
management (CRM) principles. Controlled rest
should be used in conjunction with other on-
board fatigue management Regulation (EU)
965/2012 on air operations Annex IV – Part-
CAT CAT.OP.MPA I R , A M C , G M Page
160 | May 2017 countermeasures such as
physical exercise, bright cockpit illumination at
appropriate times, balanced eating and
drinking, and intellectual activity.
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(c) Controlled rest taken in this way should not
be considered to be part of a rest period for the
purposes of calculating flight time limitations,
nor used to justify any duty period. Controlled
rest may be used to manage both sudden
unexpected fatigue and fatigue that is expected
to become more severe during higher workload
periods later in the flight. Controlled rest is not
related to fatigue management, which is
planned before flight.
(d) Controlled rest periods should be agreed
according to individual needs and the accepted
principles of CRM; where the involvement of
the cabin crew is required, consideration should
be given to their workload.
(e) When applying controlled rest procedures,
the commander should ensure that:
(1) the other flight crew member(s) is (are)
adequately briefed to carry out the duties of the
resting flight crew member;
(2) one flight crew member is fully able to
exercise control of the aircraft at all times; and
(3) any system intervention that would
normally require a cross-check according to
multi-crew principles is avoided until the
resting flight crew member resumes his/her
duties.
(f) Controlled rest procedures should satisfy all
of the following criteria:
(1) Only one flight crew member at a time
should take rest at his/her station; the restraint
device should be used and the seat positioned to
minimise unintentional interference with the
controls.
(2) The rest period should be no longer than 45
minutes (in order to limit any actual sleep to
approximately 30 minutes) to limit deep sleep
and associated long recovery time (sleep
inertia).
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(3) After this 45-minute period, there should be
a recovery period of 20 minutes to overcome
sleep inertia during which control of the aircraft
should not be entrusted to the flight crew
member. At the end of this recovery period, an
appropriate briefing should be given.
(4) In the case of two-crew operations, means
should be established to ensure that the
nonresting flight crew member remains alert.
This may include:
(i) appropriate alarm systems;
(ii) on-board systems to monitor flight crew
activity; and
(iii) frequent cabin crew checks. In this case,
the commander should inform the senior cabin
crew member of the intention of the flight crew
member to take controlled rest, and of the time
of the end of that rest; frequent contact should
be established between the non-resting flight
crew member and the cabin crew by
communication means, and the cabin crew
should check that the resting flight crew
member is awake at the end of the period.
(5) There should be a minimum of 20 minutes
between two subsequent controlled rest periods
in order to overcome the effects of sleep inertia
and allow for adequate briefing.
(6) If necessary, a flight crew member may take
more than one rest period, if time permits, on
longer sectors, subject to the restrictions above.
(7) Controlled rest periods should terminate at
least 30 minutes before the top of descent.
CAT.OP.MPA.215 Use of headset — (a) Each flight crew member required to be on ---
aeroplanes duty in the flight crew compartment shall wear
a headset with boom microphone or equivalent.
The headset shall be used as the primary device
for voice communications with ATS:
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(1) when on the ground: ---
(i) when receiving the ATC departure clearance
via voice communication; and
(ii) when engines are running;
(2) when in flight: ---
(i) below transition altitude; or
(ii) 10 000 ft, whichever is higher; and
(3) whenever deemed necessary by the
commander.
(b) In the conditions of (a), the boom
microphone or equivalent shall be in a position
that permits its use for two-way radio
communications.
CAT.OP.MPA.216 Use of headset — Each flight crew member required to be on duty
helicopters in the flight crew compartment shall wear a
headset with boom microphone, or equivalent,
and use it as the primary device to
communicate with ATS.
CAT.OP.MPA.220 Assisting means for The operator shall establish procedures to
emergency evacuation ensure that before taxiing, take-off and landing
and when safe and practicable to do so, all
means of assistance for emergency evacuation
that deploy automatically are armed.
CAT.OP.MPA.225 Seats, safety belts and (a) Crew members ---
restraint systems
(1) During take-off and landing, and whenever
decided by the commander in the interest of
safety, each crew member shall be properly
secured by all safety belts and restraint systems
provided.
(2) During other phases of the flight, each flight
crew member in the flight crew compartment
shall keep the assigned station safety belt
fastened while at his/her station.
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(b) Passengers ---
(1) Before take-off and landing, and during
taxiing, and whenever deemed necessary in the
interest of safety, the commander shall be
satisfied that each passenger on board occupies
a seat or berth with his/her safety belt or
restraint system properly secured.
(2) The operator shall make provisions for
multiple occupancy of aircraft seats that is only
allowed on specified seats. The commander
shall be satisfied that multiple occupancy does
not occur other than by one adult and one infant
who is properly secured by a supplementary
loop belt or other restraint device.
CAT.OP.MPA.230 Securing of passenger (a) The operator shall establish procedures to
compartment and galley(s) ensure that before taxiing, take-off and landing
all exits and escape paths are unobstructed.
(b) The commander shall ensure that before
take-off and landing, and whenever deemed
necessary in the interest of safety, all
equipment and baggage are properly secured.
CAT.OP.MPA.235 Life-jackets — The operator shall establish procedures to
helicopters ensure that, when operating a helicopter over
water in performance class 3, account is taken
of the duration of the flight and conditions to be
encountered when deciding if life-jackets are to
be worn by all occupants.
CAT.OP.MPA.240 Smoking on board The commander shall not allow smoking on ---
board:
(a) whenever considered necessary in the
interest of safety;
(b) during refuelling and defuelling of the
aircraft;
(c) while the aircraft is on the surface unless the
operator has determined procedures to mitigate
the risks during ground operations;
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(d) outside designated smoking areas, in the
aisle(s) and lavatory(ies);
(e) in cargo compartments and/or other areas
where cargo is carried that is not stored in
flame-resistant containers or covered by flame-
resistant canvas; and
(f) in those areas of the passenger compartment
where oxygen is being supplied.
CAT.OP.MPA.245 Meteorological (a) On IFR flights the commander shall only: ---
conditions — all aircraft
(1) commence take-off; or
(2) continue beyond the point from which a
revised ATS flight plan applies in the event of
in-flight replanning,
when information is available indicating that
the expected weather conditions, at the time of
arrival, at the destination and/or required
alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above the
planning minima.
(b) On IFR flights, the commander shall only
continue towards the planned destination
aerodrome when the latest information
available indicates that, at the expected time of
arrival, the weather conditions at the
destination, or at least one destination alternate
aerodrome, are at or above the applicable
aerodrome operating minima.
(c) On VFR flights, the commander shall only
commence take-off when the appropriate
weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that
the meteorological conditions along the part of
the route to be flown under VFR will, at the
appropriate time, be at or above the VFR limits.
CAT.OP.MPA.246 Meteorological In addition to CAT.OP.MPA.245, on IFR ---
conditions — aeroplanes flights with aeroplanes, the commander shall
only continue beyond:
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(a) the decision point when using the reduced
contingency fuel (RCF) procedure; or
(b) the pre-determined point when using the
pre-determined point (PDP) procedure,
when information is available indicating that
the expected weather conditions, at the time of
arrival, at the destination and/or required
alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above the
applicable aerodrome operating minima.
CAT.OP.MPA.247 Meteorological In addition to CAT.OP.MPA.245: ---
conditions — helicopters
(a) On VFR flights overwater out of sight of
land with helicopters, the commander shall
only commence take-off when the appropriate
weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that
the cloud ceiling will be above 600 ft by day or
1 200 ft by night.
It shall be applicable until 1 July 2018, then (b) Notwithstanding (a), when flying between
deleted helidecks located in class G airspace where the
overwater sector is less than 10 NM, VFR
flights may be conducted when the limits are at,
or better than, the following:
(c) Flight with helicopters to a helideck or
elevated FATO shall only be operated when the
mean wind speed at the helideck or elevated
FATO is reported to be less than 60 kt.
CAT.OP.MPA.250 Ice and other (a) The operator shall establish procedures to
contaminants — ground procedures be followed when ground de-icing and anti-
icing and related inspections of the aircraft are
- GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.250 necessary to allow the safe operation of the
- GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.250 aircraft.
- GM3 CAT.OP.MPA.250
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(b) The commander shall only commence take-
off if the aircraft is clear of any deposit that
might adversely affect the performance or
controllability of the aircraft, except as
permitted under (a) and in accordance with the
AFM.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.250 Ice and other
contaminants — ground procedures
TERMINOLOGY Terms used in the context of de-icing/anti-icing
have the meaning defined in the following
subparagraphs.
(a) ‘Anti-icing fluid’ includes, but is not limited
to, the following:
(1) Type I fluid if heated to minimum 60°C at
the nozzle;
(2) mixture of water and Type I fluid if heated
to minimum 60°C at the nozzle;
(3) Type II fluid;
(4) mixture of water and Type II fluid;
(5) Type III fluid;
(6) mixture of water and Type III fluid;
(7) Type IV fluid;
(8) mixture of water and Type IV fluid.
On uncontaminated aircraft surfaces, Type II,
III and IV anti-icing fluids are normally applied
unheated.
(b) ‘Clear ice’: a coating of ice, generally clear
and smooth, but with some air pockets. It forms
on exposed objects, the temperatures of which
are at, below or slightly above the freezing
temperature, by the freezing of super-cooled
drizzle, droplets or raindrops.
(c) Conditions conducive to aircraft icing on
the ground (e.g. freezing fog, freezing
precipitation, frost, rain or high humidity (on
cold soaked wings), snow or mixed rain and
snow).
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(d) ‘Contamination’, in this context, is
understood as being all forms of frozen or
semi-frozen moisture, such as frost, snow, slush
or ice.
(e) ‘Contamination check’: a check of aircraft
for contamination to establish the need for de-
icing
(f) ‘De-icing fluid’: such fluid includes, but is
not limited to, the following:
(1) heated water;
(2) Type I fluid;
(3) mixture of water and Type I fluid;
(4) Type II fluid;
(5) mixture of water and Type II fluid;
(6) Type III fluid;
(7) mixture of water and Type III fluid;
(8) Type IV fluid;
(9) mixture of water and Type IV fluid.
De-icing fluid is normally applied heated to
ensure maximum efficiency.
(g) ‘De-icing/anti-icing’: this is the
combination of de-icing and anti-icing
performed in either one or two steps.
(h) ‘Ground ice detection system (GIDS)’:
system used during aircraft ground operations
to inform the personnel involved in the
operation and/or the flight crew about the
presence of frost, ice, snow or slush on the
aircraft surfaces.
(i) ‘Lowest operational use temperature
(LOUT)’: the lowest temperature at which a
fluid has been tested and certified as acceptable
in accordance with the appropriate
aerodynamic acceptance test whilst still
maintaining a freezing point buffer of not less
than:
(1) 10°C for a Type I de-icing/anti-icing fluid;
or
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(2) 7°C for Type II, III or IV de-icing/anti-icing
fluids.
(j) ‘Post-treatment check’: an external check of
the aircraft after de-icing and/or anti-icing
treatment accomplished from suitably elevated
observation points (e.g. from the de-icing/anti-
icing equipment itself or other elevated
equipment) to ensure that the aircraft is free
from any frost, ice, snow, or slush.
(k) ‘Pre-take-off check’: an assessment
normally performed by the flight crew, to
validate the applied HoT.
(l) ‘Pre-take-off contamination check’: a check
of the treated surfaces for contamination,
performed when the HoT has been exceeded or
if any doubt exists regarding the continued
effectiveness of the applied anti-icing
treatment. It is normally accomplished
externally, just before commencement of the
take-off run.
ANTI-ICING CODES (m) The following are examples of anti-icing
codes:
(1) ‘Type I’ at (start time) — to be used if anti-
icing treatment has been performed with a Type
I fluid;
(2) ‘Type II/100’ at (start time) — to be used if
anti-icing treatment has been performed with
undiluted Type II fluid;
(3) ‘Type II/75’ at (start time) — to be used if
anti-icing treatment has been performed with a
mixture of 75 % Type II fluid and 25 % water;
(4) ‘Type IV/50’ at (start time) — to be used if
anti-icing treatment has been performed with a
mixture of 50 % Type IV fluid and 50 % water.
(n) When a two-step de-icing/anti-icing
operation has been carried out, the anti-icing
code should be determined by the second step
fluid. Fluid brand names may be included, if
desired.
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GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.250 Ice and other
contaminants — ground procedures
DE-ICING/ANTI-ICING — (a) De-icing and/or anti-icing procedures
PROCEDURES should take into account manufacturer’s
recommendations, including those that are
type-specific and cover:
(1) contamination checks, including detection
of clear ice and under-wing frost; limits on the
thickness/area of contamination published in
the AFM or other manufacturers’
documentation should be followed;
(2) procedures to be followed if de-icing and/or
anti-icing procedures are interrupted or
unsuccessful;
(3) post-treatment checks;
(4) pre-take-off checks;
(5) pre-take-off contamination checks;
(6) the recording of any incidents relating to de-
icing and/or anti-icing; and
(7) the responsibilities of all personnel involved
in de-icing and/or anti-icing.
(b) Operator’s procedures should ensure the
following:
(1) When aircraft surfaces are contaminated by
ice, frost, slush or snow, they are de-iced prior
to take-off according to the prevailing
conditions. Removal of contaminants may be
performed with mechanical tools, fluids
(including hot water), infrared heat or forced
air, taking account of aircraft type-specific
provisions.
(2) Account is taken of the wing skin
temperature versus outside air temperature
(OAT), as this may affect:
(i) the need to carry out aircraft de-icing and/or
anti-icing; and/or
(ii) the performance of the de-icing/anti-icing
fluids
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(3) When freezing precipitation occurs or there
is a risk of freezing precipitation occurring that
would contaminate the surfaces at the time of
take-off, aircraft surfaces should be antiiced. If
both de-icing and anti-icing are required, the
procedure may be performed in a oneor two-
step process, depending upon weather
conditions, available equipment, available
fluids and the desired hold-over time (HoT).
One-step de-icing/anti-icing means that deicing
and anti-icing are carried out at the same time,
using a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and
water. Two-step de-icing/anti-icing means that
de-icing and anti-icing are carried out in two
separate steps. The aircraft is first de-iced using
heated water only or a heated mixture of de-
icing/anti-icing fluid and water. After
completion of the de-icing operation, a layer of
a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water,
or of de-icing/anti-icing fluid only, is sprayed
over the aircraft surfaces. The second step will
be taken before the first-step fluid freezes,
typically within three minutes and, if necessary,
area by area.
(4) When an aircraft is anti-iced and a longer
HoT is needed/desired, the use of a less diluted
Type II or Type IV fluid should be considered.
(5) All restrictions relative to OAT and fluid
application (including, but not necessarily
limited to, temperature and pressure) published
by the fluid manufacturer and/or aircraft
manufacturer, are followed. and procedures,
limitations and recommendations to prevent the
formation of fluid residues are followed.
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(6) During conditions conducive to aircraft
icing on the ground or after de-icing and/or
antiicing, an aircraft is not dispatched for
departure unless it has been given a
contamination check or a post-treatment check
by a trained and qualified person. This check
should cover all treated surfaces of the aircraft
and be performed from points offering
sufficient accessibility to these parts. To ensure
that there is no clear ice on suspect areas, it
may be necessary to make a physical check
(e.g. tactile).
(7) The required entry is made in the technical
log.
(8) The commander continually monitors the
environmental situation after the performed
treatment. Prior to take-off, he/she performs a
pre-take-off check, which is an assessment of
whether the applied HoT is still appropriate.
This pre-take-off check includes, but is not
limited to, factors such as precipitation, wind
and OAT
(9) If any doubt exists as to whether a deposit
may adversely affect the aircraft’s performance
and/or controllability characteristics, the
commander should arrange for a pre-take-off
contamination check to be performed in order
to verify that the aircraft’s surfaces are free of
contamination. Special methods and/or
equipment may be necessary to perform this
check, especially at night time or in extremely
adverse weather conditions. If this check
cannot be performed just before take-off, re-
treatment should be applied.
(10) When re-treatment is necessary, any
residue of the previous treatment should be
removed and a completely new de-icing/anti-
icing treatment should be applied.
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(11) When a ground ice detection system
(GIDS) is used to perform an aircraft surfaces
check prior to and/or after a treatment, the use
of GIDS by suitably trained personnel should
be part of the procedure.
(c) Special operational considerations
(1) When using thickened de-icing/anti-icing
fluids, the operator should consider a two-step
deicing/anti-icing procedure, the first step
preferably with hot water and/or un-thickened
fluids.
(2) The use of de-icing/anti-icing fluids should
be in accordance with the aircraft
manufacturer’s documentation. This is
particularly important for thickened fluids to
assure sufficient flow-off during take-off.
(3) The operator should comply with any type-
specific operational provision(s), such as an
aircraft mass decrease and/or a take-off speed
increase associated with a fluid application.
(4) The operator should take into account any
flight handling procedures (stick force, rotation
speed and rate, take-off speed, aircraft attitude
etc.) laid down by the aircraft manufacturer
when associated with a fluid application.
(5) The limitations or handling procedures
resulting from (c)(3) and/or (c)(4) above should
be part of the flight crew pre take-off briefing.
(d) Communications
(1) Before aircraft treatment. When the aircraft
is to be treated with the flight crew on board,
the flight and personnel involved in the
operation should confirm the fluid to be used,
the extent of treatment required and any aircraft
type-specific procedure(s) to be used. Any
other information needed to apply the HoT
tables should be exchanged.
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(2) Anti-icing code. The operator’s procedures
should include an anti-icing code, which
indicates the treatment the aircraft has received.
This code provides the flight crew with the
minimum details necessary to estimate a HoT
and confirms that the aircraft is free of
contamination.
(3) After treatment. Before reconfiguring or
moving the aircraft, the flight crew should
receive a confirmation from the personnel
involved in the operation that all de-icing
and/or antiicing operations are complete and
that all personnel and equipment are clear of
the aircraft.
(e) Hold-over protection
The operator should publish in the operations
manual, when required, the HoTs in the form of
a table or a diagram, to account for the various
types of ground icing conditions and the
different Regulation (EU) 965/2012 on air
operations Annex IV – Part-CAT
CAT.OP.MPA I R , A M C , G M Page 168 |
May 2017 types and concentrations of fluids
used. However, the times of protection shown
in these tables are to be used as guidelines only
and are normally used in conjunction with the
pre-take-off check.
(f) Training
The operator’s initial and recurrent de-icing
and/or anti-icing training programmes
(including communication training) for flight
crew and those of its personnel involved in the
operation who are involved in de-icing and/or
anti-icing should include additional training if
any of the following is introduced:
(1) a new method, procedure and/or technique;
(2) a new type of fluid and/or equipment; or
(3) a new type of aircraft.
(g) Contracting
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When the operator contracts training on de-
icing/anti-icing, the operator should ensure that
the contractor complies with the operator’s
training/qualification procedures, together with
any specific procedures in respect of:
(1) de-icing and/or anti-icing methods and
procedures;
(2) fluids to be used, including precautions for
storage and preparation for use;
(3) specific aircraft provisions (e.g. no-spray
areas, propeller/engine de-icing, APU operation
etc.); and
(4) checking and communications procedures.
(h) Special maintenance considerations
(1) General
The operator should take proper account of the
possible side-effects of fluid use. Such effects
may include, but are not necessarily limited to,
dried and/or re-hydrated residues, corrosion and
the removal of lubricants.
(2) Special considerations regarding residues of
dried fluids
The operator should establish procedures to
prevent or detect and remove residues of dried
fluid. If necessary the operator should establish
appropriate inspection intervals based on the
recommendations of the airframe
manufacturers and/or the operator’s own
experience:
(i) Dried fluid residues
Dried fluid residues could occur when surfaces
have been treated and the aircraft has not
subsequently been flown and has not been
subject to precipitation. The fluid may then
have dried on the surfaces.
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(ii) Re-hydrated fluid residues
Repetitive application of thickened de-
icing/anti-icing fluids may lead to the
subsequent formation/build-up of a dried
residue in aerodynamically quiet areas, such as
cavities and gaps. This residue may re-hydrate
if exposed to high humidity conditions,
precipitation, washing, etc., and increase to
many times its original size/volume. This
residue will freeze if exposed to conditions at
or below 0 °C. This may cause moving parts,
such as elevators, ailerons, and flap actuating
mechanisms to stiffen or jam in-flight. Re-
hydrated residues may also form on exterior
surfaces, which can reduce lift, increase drag
and stall speed. Re-hydrated residues may also
collect inside control surface structures and
cause clogging of drain holes or imbalances to
flight controls. Residues may also collect in
hidden areas, such as around flight control
hinges, pulleys, grommets, on cables and in
gaps.
(iii) Operators are strongly recommended to
obtain information about the fluid dry-out and
re-hydration characteristics from the fluid
manufacturers and to select products with
optimised characteristics.
(iv) Additional information should be obtained
from fluid manufacturers for handling, storage,
application and testing of their products.
GM3 CAT.OP.MPA.250 Ice and other
contaminants — ground procedures
DE-ICING/ANTI-ICING BACKGROUND Further guidance material on this issue is given
INFORMATION in the ICAO Manual of Aircraft Ground De-
icing/Anti-icing Operations(Doc 9640)
(hereinafter referred to as the ICAO Manual of
Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing
Operations).
(a) General
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(1) Any deposit of frost, ice, snow or slush on
the external surfaces of an aircraft may
drastically affect its flying qualities because of
reduced aerodynamic lift, increased drag,
modified stability and control characteristics.
Furthermore, freezing deposits may cause
moving parts, such as elevators, ailerons, flap
actuating mechanism etc., to jam and create a
potentially hazardous condition.
Propeller/engine/auxiliary power unit
(APU)/systems performance may deteriorate
due to the presence of frozen contaminants on
blades, intakes and components. Also, engine
operation may be seriously affected by the
ingestion of snow or ice, thereby causing
engine stall or compressor damage. In addition,
ice/frost may form on certain external surfaces
(e.g. wing upper and lower surfaces, etc.) due
to the effects of cold fuel/structures, even in
ambient temperatures well above 0 °C.
(2) Procedures established by the operator for
de-icing and/or anti-icing are intended to ensure
that the aircraft is clear of contamination so that
degradation of aerodynamic characteristics or
mechanical interference will not occur and,
following anti-icing, to maintain the airframe in
that condition during the appropriate HoT.
(3) Under certain meteorological conditions,
de-icing and/or anti-icing procedures may be
ineffective in providing sufficient protection for
continued operations. Examples of these
conditions are freezing rain, ice pellets and hail,
heavy snow, high wind velocity, fast dropping
OAT or any time when freezing precipitation
with high water content is present. No HoT
guidelines exist for these conditions.
(4) Material for establishing operational
procedures can be found, for example, in:
(i) ICAO Annex 3, Meteorological Service for
International Air Navigation;
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(ii) ICAO Manual of Aircraft Ground De-
icing/Anti-icing Operations;
(iii) ISO 11075 Aircraft - De-icing/anti-icing
fluids - ISO type I;
(iv) ISO 11076 Aircraft - De-icing/anti-icing
methods with fluids;
(v) ISO 11077 Aerospace - Self propelled de-
icing/anti-icing vehicles - Functional
requirements;
(vi) ISO 11078 Aircraft - De-icing/anti-icing
fluids -- ISO types II, III and IV;
(vii) AEA ‘Recommendations for de-icing/anti-
icing of aircraft on the ground’;
(viii) AEA ‘Training recommendations and
background information for de-icing/anti-icing
of aircraft on the ground’;
(ix) EUROCAE ED-104A Minimum
Operational Performance Specification for
Ground Ice Detection Systems;
(x) SAE AS5681 Minimum Operational
Performance Specification for Remote On-
Ground Ice Detection Systems;
(xi) SAE ARP4737 Aircraft - De-icing/anti-
icing methods;
(xii) SAE AMS1424 De-icing/anti-Icing Fluid,
Aircraft, SAE Type I;
(xiii) SAE AMS1428 Fluid, Aircraft De-
icing/anti-Icing, Non-Newtonian,
(Pseudoplastic), SAE Types II, III, and IV;
(xiv) SAE ARP1971 Aircraft De-icing Vehicle
- Self-Propelled, Large and Small Capacity;
(xv) SAE ARP5149 Training Programme
Guidelines for De-icing/anti-icing of Aircraft
on Ground; and
(xvi) SAE ARP5646 Quality Program
Guidelines for De-icing/anti-icing of Aircraft
on the Ground.
(b) Fluids
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(1) Type I fluid: Due to its properties, Type I
fluid forms a thin, liquid-wetting film on
surfaces to which it is applied which, under
certain weather conditions, gives a very limited
HoT. With this type of fluid, increasing the
concentration of fluid in the fluid/water mix
does not provide any extension in HoT.
(2) Type II and Type IV fluids contain
thickeners which enable the fluid to form a
thicker liquidwetting film on surfaces to which
it is applied. Generally, this fluid provides a
longer HoT than Type I fluids in similar
conditions. With this type of fluid, the HoT can
be extended by increasing the ratio of fluid in
the fluid/water mix.
(3) Type III fluid is a thickened fluid especially
intended for use on aircraft with low rotation
speeds.
(4) Fluids used for de-icing and/or anti-icing
should be acceptable to the operator and the
aircraft manufacturer. These fluids normally
conform to specifications such as SAE
AMS1424, SAE AMS1428 or equivalent. Use
of non-conforming fluids is not recommended
due to their characteristics being unknown. The
anti-icing and aerodynamic properties of
thickened fluids may be seriously degraded by,
for example, inappropriate storage, treatment,
application, application equipment and age.
(c) Hold-over protection
(1) Hold-over protection is achieved by a layer
of anti-icing fluid remaining on and protecting
aircraft surfaces for a period of time. With an
one-step de-icing/anti-icing procedure, the HoT
begins at the commencement of de-icing/anti-
icing. With a two-step procedure, the HoT
begins at the commencement of the second
(anti-icing) step. The hold-over protection runs
out:
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(i) at the commencement of the take-off roll
(due to aerodynamic shedding of fluid); or
(ii) when frozen deposits start to form or
accumulate on treated aircraft surfaces, thereby
indicating the loss of effectiveness of the fluid.
(2) The duration of hold-over protection may
vary depending on the influence of factors
other than those specified in the HoT tables.
Guidance should be provided by the operator to
take account of such factors, which may
include:
(i) atmospheric conditions, e.g. exact type and
rate of precipitation, wind direction and
velocity, relative humidity and solar radiation;
and
(ii) the aircraft and its surroundings, such as
aircraft component inclination angle, contour
and surface roughness, surface temperature,
operation in close proximity to other aircraft
(jet or propeller blast) and ground equipment
and structures.
(3) HoTs are not meant to imply that flight is
safe in the prevailing conditions if the specified
HoT has not been exceeded. Certain
meteorological conditions, such as freezing
drizzle or freezing rain, may be beyond the
certification envelope of the aircraft.
CAT.OP.MPA.255 Ice and other (a) The operator shall establish procedures for
contaminants — flight procedures flights in expected or actual icing conditions.
(b) The commander shall only commence a
flight or intentionally fly into expected or
actual icing conditions if the aircraft is certified
and equipped to cope with such conditions.
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(c) If icing exceeds the intensity of icing for
which the aircraft is certified or if an aircraft
not certified for flight in known icing
conditions encounters icing, the commander
shall exit the icing conditions without delay, by
a change of level and/or route, if necessary by
declaring an emergency to ATC.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.255 Ice and other ---
contaminants – flight procedures
FLIGHT IN EXPECTED OR ACTUAL ---
ICING CONDITIONS - AEROPLANES
(a) In accordance with Article 2(a)5. of Annex
IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 (Essential
requirements for air operations), in case of
flight into known or expected icing conditions,
the aircraft must be certified, equipped and/or
treated to operate safely in such conditions. The
procedures to be established by the operator
should take account of the design, the
equipment, the configuration of the aircraft and
the necessary training. For these reasons,
different aircraft types operated by the same
company may require the development of
different procedures. In every case the relevant
limitations are those which are defined in the
AFM and other documents produced by the
manufacturer.
(b) The operator should ensure that the ---
procedures take account of the following:
(1) the equipment and instruments which must
be serviceable for flight in icing conditions;
(2) the limitations on flight in icing conditions
for each phase of flight. These limitations may
be imposed by the aircraft’s de-icing or anti-
icing equipment or the necessary performance
corrections that have to be made;
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(3) the criteria the flight crew should use to
assess the effect of icing on the performance
and/or controllability of the aircraft;
(4) the means by which the flight crew detects,
by visual cues or the use of the aircraft’s ice
detection system, that the flight is entering
icing conditions; and
(5) the action to be taken by the flight crew in a ---
deteriorating situation (which may develop
rapidly) resulting in an adverse affect on the
performance and/or controllability of the
aircraft, due to:
(i) the failure of the aircraft’s anti-icing or de-
icing equipment to control a build-up of ice;
and/or
(ii) ice build-up on unprotected areas.
(c) Training for dispatch and flight in expected ---
or actual icing conditions. The content of the
operations manual should reflect the training,
both conversion and recurrent, which flight
crew, cabin crew and all other relevant
operational personnel require in order to
comply with the procedures for dispatch and
flight in icing conditions:
(1) For the flight crew, the training should ---
include:
(i) instruction on how to recognise, from
weather reports or forecasts which are available
before flight commences or during flight, the
risks of encountering icing conditions along the
planned route and on how to modify, as
necessary, the departure and in-flight routes or
profiles;
(ii) instruction on the operational and
performance limitations or margins;
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(iii) the use of in-flight ice detection, anti-icing
and de-icing systems in both normal and
abnormal operation; and
(iv) instruction on the differing intensities and
forms of ice accretion and the consequent
action which should be taken.
(2) For the cabin crew, the training should ---
include;
(i) awareness of the conditions likely to
produce surface contamination; and
(ii) the need to inform the flight crew of
significant ice accretion.
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.255 Ice and other ---
contaminants – flight procedures
FLIGHT IN EXPECTED OR ACTUAL ---
ICING CONDITIONS - HELICOPTERS
(a) The procedures to be established by the
operator should take account of the design, the
equipment or the configuration of the helicopter
and also of the training which is needed. For
these reasons, different helicopter types
operated by the same company may require the
development of different procedures. In every
case, the relevant limitations are those that are
defined in the AFM and other documents
produced by the manufacturer.
(b) For the required entries in the operations
manual, the procedural principles that apply to
flight in icing conditions are referred to under
Subpart MLR of Annex III (ORO.MLR) and
should be cross-referenced, where necessary, to
supplementary, type-specific data.
(c) Technical content of the procedures ---
The operator should ensure that the procedures ---
take account of the following:
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(1) CAT.IDE.H.165;
(2) the equipment and instruments that should
be serviceable for flight in icing conditions;
(3) the limitations on flight in icing conditions
for each phase of flight. These limitations may
be specified by the helicopter’s de-icing or anti-
icing equipment or the necessary performance
corrections which have to be made;
(4) the criteria the flight crew should use to
assess the effect of icing on the performance
and/or controllability of the helicopter;
(5) the means by which the flight crew detects,
by visual cues or the use of the helicopter’s ice
detection system, that the flight is entering
icing conditions; and
(6) the action to be taken by the flight crew in a ---
deteriorating situation (which may develop
rapidly) resulting in an adverse effect on the
performance and/or controllability of the
helicopter, due to either:
(i) the failure of the helicopter’s anti-icing or
de-icing equipment to control a build-up of ice;
and/or
(ii) ice build-up on unprotected areas.
(d) Training for dispatch and flight in expected ---
or actual icing conditions
The content of the operations manual, Part D,
should reflect the training, both conversion and
recurrent, which flight crew, and all other
relevant operational personnel will require in
order to comply with the procedures for
dispatch and flight in icing conditions.
(1) For the flight crew, the training should ---
include:
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(i) instruction on how to recognise, from
weather reports or forecasts that are available
before flight commences or during flight, the
risks of encountering icing conditions along the
planned route and on how to modify, as
necessary, the departure and in-flight routes or
profiles;
(ii) instruction on the operational and
performance limitations or margins;
(iii) the use of in-flight ice detection, anti-icing
and de-icing systems in both normal and
abnormal operation; and
(iv) instruction on the differing intensities and
forms of ice accretion and the consequent
action which should be taken.
(2) For crew members other than flight crew, ---
the training should include;
(i) awareness of the conditions likely to
produce surface contamination; and
(ii) the need to inform the flight crew of
significant ice accretion.
CAT.OP.MPA.260 Fuel and oil supply The commander shall only commence a flight
or continue in the event of in-flight replanning
when satisfied that the aircraft carries at least
the planned amount of usable fuel and oil to
complete the flight safely, taking into account
the expected operating conditions.
CAT.OP.MPA.265 Take-off conditions Before commencing take-off, the commander ---
shall be satisfied that:
(a) according to the information available to
him/her, the weather at the aerodrome or
operating site and the condition of the runway
or FATO intended to be used would not prevent
a safe take-off and departure; and
(b) established aerodrome operating minima
will be complied with.
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CAT.OP.MPA.270 Minimum flight The commander or the pilot to whom conduct
altitudes of the flight has been delegated shall not fly
below specified minimum altitudes except
when:
(a) necessary for take-off or landing; or
(b) descending in accordance with procedures YES
approved by the competent authority.
CAT.OP.MPA.275 Simulated abnormal The operator shall ensure that when carrying ---
situations in flight passengers or cargo the following are not
simulated:
(a) abnormal or emergency situations that
require the application of abnormal or
emergency procedures; or
(b) flight in IMC by artificial means.
CAT.OP.MPA.280 In-flight fuel The operator shall establish a procedure to ---
management — aeroplanes ensure that in-flight fuel checks and fuel
management are carried out according to the
following criteria.
(a) In-flight fuel checks ---
(1) The commander shall ensure that fuel ---
checks are carried out in-flight at regular
intervals. The usable remaining fuel shall be
recorded and evaluated to:
(i) compare actual consumption with planned
consumption;
(ii) check that the usable remaining fuel is
sufficient to complete the flight, in accordance
with (b); and
(iii) determine the expected usable fuel
remaining on arrival at the destination
aerodrome.
(2) The relevant fuel data shall be recorded.
(b) In-flight fuel management ---
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(1) The flight shall be conducted so that the ---
expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the
destination aerodrome is not less than:
(i) the required alternate fuel plus final reserve
fuel; or
(ii) the final reserve fuel if no alternate
aerodrome is required.
(2) If an in-flight fuel check shows that the ---
expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the
destination aerodrome is less than:
(i) the required alternate fuel plus final reserve
fuel, the commander shall take into account the
traffic and the operational conditions prevailing
at the destination aerodrome, at the destination
alternate aerodrome and at any other adequate
aerodrome in deciding whether to proceed to
the destination aerodrome or to divert so as to
perform a safe landing with not less than final
reserve fuel; or
(ii) the final reserve fuel if no alternate
aerodrome is required, the commander shall
take appropriate action and proceed to an
adequate aerodrome so as to perform a safe
landing with not less than final reserve fuel.
(3) The commander shall declare an emergency
when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at
the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe
landing can be performed, is less than final
reserve fuel.
(4) Additional conditions for specific ---
procedures
(i) On a flight using the RCF procedure, to ---
proceed to the destination 1 aerodrome, the
commander shall ensure that the usable fuel
remaining at the decision point is at least the
total of:
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(A) trip fuel from the decision point to the
destination 1 aerodrome;
(B) contingency fuel equal to 5 % of trip fuel
from the decision point to the destination 1
aerodrome;
(C) destination 1 aerodrome alternate fuel, if a
destination 1 alternate aerodrome is required;
and
(D) final reserve fuel.
(ii) On a flight using the PDP procedure to ---
proceed to the destination aerodrome, the
commander shall ensure that the usable fuel
remaining at the PDP is at least the total of:
(A) trip fuel from the PDP to the destination
aerodrome;
(B) contingency fuel from the PDP to the
destination aerodrome; and
(C) additional fuel.
CAT.OP.MPA.281 In-flight fuel (a) The operator shall establish a procedure to
management — helicopters ensure that in-flight fuel checks and fuel
management are carried out.
(b) The commander shall ensure that the
amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not
less than the fuel required to proceed to an
aerodrome or operating site where a safe
landing can be made, with final reserve fuel
remaining.
(c) The commander shall declare an emergency
when the actual usable fuel on board is less
than final reserve fuel.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.281 In-flight fuel ---
management - helicopters
COMPLEX MOTOR-POWERED ---
HELICOPTERS, OTHER THAN LOCAL
OPERATIONS
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The operator should base in-flight fuel ---
management procedures on the following
criteria:
(a) In-flight fuel checks ---
(1) The commander should ensure that fuel ---
checks are carried out in-flight at regular
intervals. The remaining fuel should be
recorded and evaluated to:
(i) compare actual consumption with planned
consumption;
(ii) check that the remaining fuel is sufficient to
complete the flight; and
(iii) determine the expected fuel remaining on
arrival at the destination.
(2) The relevant fuel data should be recorded.
(b) In-flight fuel management ---
(1) If, as a result of an in-flight fuel check, the ---
expected fuel remaining on arrival at the
destination is less than the required alternate
fuel plus final reserve fuel, the commander
should:
(i) divert; or
(ii) replan the flight in accordance with
Applicable until 01 July 2018, then replaced CAT.OP.MPA.181 (d)(1) unless he/she
by paragraph (ii) below. considers it safer to continue to the destination.
Applicable from 01 July 2018. Will replace (ii) replan the flight in accordance with
paragraph (ii) above. SPA.HOFO.120 unless he/she considers it safer
to continue to the destination.
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(2) At an onshore destination, when two
suitable, separate touchdown and lift-off areas
are available and the weather conditions at the
destination comply with those specified for
planning in CAT.OP.MPA.245 (a)(2), the
commander may permit alternate fuel to be
used before landing at the destination.
(c) If, as a result of an in-flight fuel check on a ---
flight to an isolated destination, planned in
accordance with (b), the expected fuel
remaining at the point of last possible diversion
is less than the sum of:
(1) fuel to divert to an operating site selected in
accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.181 (a);
(2) contingency fuel; and
(3) final reserve fuel,
the commander should: ---
(i) divert; or
(ii) proceed to the destination provided that at
onshore destinations, two suitable, separate
touchdown and lift-off areas are available at the
destination and the expected weather conditions
at the destination comply with those specified
for planning in CAT.OP.MPA.245 (a)(2).
CAT.OP.MPA.285 Use of supplemental The commander shall ensure that flight crew
oxygen members engaged in performing duties
essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in
flight use supplemental oxygen continuously
whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 10 000 ft
for a period of more than 30 minutes and
whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13 000 ft.
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CAT.OP.MPA.290 Ground proximity When undue proximity to the ground is
detection detected by a flight crew member or by a
ground proximity warning system, the pilot
flying shall take corrective action immediately
to establish safe flight conditions.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.290 Ground
proximity detection
TERRAIN AWARENESS WARNING (a) Introduction
SYSTEM (TAWS) FLIGHT CREW
TRAINING PROGRAMMES
(1) This GM contains performance-based
training objectives for TAWS flight crew
training.
(2) The training objectives cover five areas:
theory of operation; pre-flight operations;
general in-flight operations; response to TAWS
cautions; and response to TAWS warnings.
(3) The term ‘TAWS’ in this GM means a
ground proximity warning system (GPWS)
enhanced by a forward-looking terrain
avoidance function. Alerts include both
cautions and warnings
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(4) The content of this GM is intended to assist
operators who are producing training
programmes. The information it contains has
not been tailored to any specific aircraft or
TAWS equipment, but highlights features
which are typically available where such
systems are installed. It is the responsibility of
the individual operator to determine the
applicability of the content of this guidance
material to each aircraft and TAWS equipment
installed and their operation. Operators should
refer to the AFM and/or aircraft/flight crew
operating manual (A/FCOM), or similar
documents, for information applicable to
specific configurations. If there should be any
conflict between the content of this guidance
material and that published in the other
documents described above, then information
contained in the AFM or A/FCOM will take
precedence.
(b) Scope
(1) The scope of this GM is designed to
identify training objectives in the areas of:
academic training; manoeuvre training; initial
evaluation; and recurrent qualification. Under
each of these four areas, the training material
has been separated into those items which are
considered essential training items and those
that are considered to be desirable. In each area,
objectives and acceptable performance criteria
are defined.
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(2) No attempt is made to define how the
training programme should be implemented.
Instead, objectives are established to define the
knowledge that a pilot operating a TAWS is
expected to possess and the performance
expected from a pilot who has completed
TAWS training. However, the guidelines do
indicate those areas in which the pilot receiving
the training should demonstrate his/her
understanding, or performance, using a real-
time, interactive training device, i.e. a flight
simulator. Where appropriate, notes are
included within the performance criteria which
amplify or clarify the material addressed by the
training objective.
(c) Performance-based training objectives
(1) TAWS academic training
(i) This training is typically conducted in a
classroom environment. The knowledge
demonstrations specified in this section may be
completed through the successful completion of
written tests or by providing correct responses
to non-real-time computer-based training
(CBT) questions.
(ii) Theory of operation. The pilot should
demonstrate an understanding of TAWS
operation and the criteria used for issuing
cautions and warnings. This training should
address system operation. Objective: To
demonstrate knowledge of how a TAWS
functions. Criteria: The pilot should
demonstrate an understanding of the following
functions:
(A) Surveillance
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(a) The GPWS computer processes data
supplied from an air data computer, a radio
altimeter, an instrument landing system
(ILS)/microwave landing system (MLS)/multi-
mode (MM) receiver, a roll attitude sensor, and
actual position of the surfaces and of the
landing gear.
(b) The forward-looking terrain avoidance
function utilises an accurate source of known
aircraft position, such as that which may be
provided by a flight management system (FMS)
or GPS, or an electronic terrain database. The
source and scope of the terrain, obstacle and
airport data, and features such as the terrain
clearance floor, the runway picker, and
geometric altitude (where provided) should all
be described.
(c) Displays required to deliver TAWS outputs
include a loudspeaker for voice
announcements, visual alerts (typically amber
and red lights), and a terrain awareness display
(that may be combined with other displays). In
addition, means should be provided for
indicating the status of the TAWS and any
partial or total failures that may occur.
(B) Terrain avoidance. Outputs from the
TAWS computer provides visual and audio
synthetic voice cautions and warnings to alert
the flight crew about potential conflicts with
terrain and obstacles.
(C) Alert thresholds. Objective: To demonstrate
knowledge of the criteria for issuing cautions
and warnings. Criteria: The pilot should be able
to demonstrate an understanding of the
methodology used by a TAWS to issue
cautions and alerts and the general criteria for
the issuance of these alerts, including:
(a) basic GPWS alerting modes specified in the
ICAO Standard:
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Mode 1: excessive sink rate;
Mode 2: excessive terrain closure rate;
Mode 3: descent after take-off or go-around;
Mode 4: unsafe proximity to terrain;
Mode 5: descent below ILS glide slope (caution
only); and
(b) an additional, optional alert mode — Mode
6: radio altitude call-out (information only);
TAWS cautions and warnings which alert the
flight crew to obstacles and terrain ahead of the
aircraft in line with or Regulation (EU)
965/2012 on air operations Annex IV – Part-
CAT CAT.OP.MPA I R , A M C , G M Page
180 | May 2017 adjacent to its projected flight
path (forward-looking terrain avoidance
(FLTA) and premature descent alert (PDA)
functions).
(D) TAWS limitations. Objective: To verify
that the pilot is aware of the limitations of
TAWS. Criteria: The pilot should demonstrate
knowledge and an understanding of TAWS
limitations identified by the manufacturer for
the equipment model installed, such as:
(a) navigation should not be predicated on the
use of the terrain display;
(b) unless geometric altitude data are provided,
use of predictive TAWS functions is prohibited
when altimeter subscale settings display ‘QFE’;
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(c) nuisance alerts can be issued if the
aerodrome of intended landing is not included
in the TAWS airport database;
(d) in cold weather operations, corrective
procedures should be implemented by the pilot
unless the TAWS has in-built compensation,
such as geometric altitude data;
(e) loss of input data to the TAWS computer
could result in partial or total loss of
functionality. Where means exist to inform the
flight crew that functionality has been
degraded, this should be known and the
consequences understood;
(f) radio signals not associated with the
intended flight profile (e.g. ILS glide path
transmissions from an adjacent runway) may
cause false alerts;
(g) inaccurate or low accuracy aircraft position
data could lead to false or non-annunciation of
terrain or obstacles ahead of the aircraft; and
(h) minimum equipment list (MEL) restrictions
should be applied in the event of the TAWS
becoming partially or completely
unserviceable. (It should be noted that basic
GPWS has no forward-looking capability.)
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(E) TAWS inhibits. Objective: To verify that
the pilot is aware of the conditions under which
certain functions of a TAWS are inhibited.
Criteria: The pilot should demonstrate
knowledge and an understanding of the various
TAWS inhibits, including the following means
of:
(a) silencing voice alerts;
(b) inhibiting ILS glide path signals (as may be
required when executing an ILS back beam
approach);
(c) inhibiting flap position sensors (as may be
required when executing an approach with the
flaps not in a normal position for landing);
(d) inhibiting the FLTA and PDA functions;
and
(e) selecting or deselecting the display of
terrain information, together with appropriate
annunciation of the status of each selection.
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(2) Operating procedures. The pilot should
demonstrate the knowledge required to operate
TAWS avionics and to interpret the information
presented by a TAWS. This training should
address the following topics:
(i) Use of controls. Objective: To verify that the
pilot can properly operate all TAWS controls
and inhibits. Criteria: The pilot should
demonstrate the proper use of controls,
including the following means by which:
(A) before flight, any equipment self-test
functions can be initiated;
(B) TAWS information can be selected for
display; and
(C) all TAWS inhibits can be operated and
what the consequent annunciations mean with
regard to loss of functionality.
(ii) Display interpretation. Objective: To verify
that the pilot understands the meaning of all
information that can be annunciated or
displayed by a TAWS. Criteria: The pilot
should demonstrate the ability to properly
interpret information annunciated or displayed
by a TAWS, including the following:
(A) knowledge of all visual and aural
indications that may be seen or heard;
(B) response required on receipt of a caution;
(C) response required on receipt of a warning;
and
(D) response required on receipt of a
notification that partial or total failure of the
TAWS has occurred (including annunciation
that the present aircraft position is of low
accuracy).
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(iii) Use of basic GPWS or use of the FLTA
function only. Objective: To verify that the
pilot understands what functionality will
remain following loss of the GPWS or of the
FLTA function. Criteria: The pilot should
demonstrate knowledge of how to recognise the
following:
(A) un-commanded loss of the GPWS function,
or how to isolate this function and how to
recognise the level of the remaining controlled
flight into terrain (CFIT) protection
(essentially, this is the FLTA function); and
(B) un-commanded loss of the FLTA function,
or how to isolate this function and how to
recognise the level of the remaining CFIT
protection (essentially, this is the basic GPWS).
(iv) Crew coordination. Objective: To verify
that the pilot adequately briefs other flight crew
members on how TAWS alerts will be handled.
Criteria: The pilot should demonstrate that the
pre-flight briefing addresses procedures that
will be used in preparation for responding to
TAWS cautions and warnings, including the
following:
(A) the action to be taken, and by whom, in the
event that a TAWS caution and/or warning is
issued; and
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(B) how multi-function displays will be used to
depict TAWS information at takeoff, in the
cruise and for the descent, approach, landing
(and any go-around). This will be in accordance
with procedures specified by the operator, who
will recognise that it may be more desirable
that other data are displayed at certain phases of
flight and that the terrain display has an
automatic 'pop-up' mode in the event that an
alert is issued.
(v) Reporting rules. Objective: To verify that
the pilot is aware of the rules for reporting
alerts to the controller and other authorities.
Criteria: The pilot should demonstrate
knowledge of the following:
(A) when, following recovery from a TAWS
alert or caution, a transmission of information
should be made to the appropriate ATC unit;
and
(B) the type of written report that is required,
how it is to be compiled, and whether any cross
reference should be made in the aircraft
technical log and/or voyage report (in
accordance with procedures specified by the
operator), following a flight in which the
aircraft flight path has been modified in
response to a TAWS alert, or if any part of the
equipment appears not to have functioned
correctly.
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(vi) Alert thresholds. Objective: To
demonstrate knowledge of the criteria for
issuing cautions and warnings. Criteria: The
pilot should be able to demonstrate an
understanding of the methodology used by a
TAWS to issue cautions and warnings and the
general criteria for the issuance of these alerts,
including awareness of the following:
(A) modes associated with basic GPWS,
including the input data associated with each;
and
(B) visual and aural annunciations that can be
issued by TAWS and how to identify which are
cautions and which are warnings.
(3) TAWS manoeuvre training. The pilot
should demonstrate the knowledge required to
respond correctly to TAWS cautions and
warnings. This training should address the
following topics:
(i) Response to cautions:
(A) Objective: To verify that the pilot properly
interprets and responds to cautions. Criteria:
The pilot should demonstrate an understanding
of the need, without delay:
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(a) to initiate action required to correct the
condition which has caused the TAWS to issue
the caution and to be prepared to respond to a
warning, if this should follow; and
(b) if a warning does not follow the caution, to
notify the controller of the new position,
heading and/or altitude/flight level of the
aircraft, and what the commander intends to do
next.
(B) The correct response to a caution might
require the pilot to:
(a) reduce a rate of descent and/or to initiate a
climb;
(b) regain an ILS glide path from below, or to
inhibit a glide path signal if an ILS is not being
flown;
(c) select more flap, or to inhibit a flap sensor if
the landing is being conducted with the intent
that the normal flap setting will not be used;
(d) select gear down; and/or
(e) initiate a turn away from the terrain or
obstacle ahead and towards an area free of such
obstructions if a forward-looking terrain
display indicates that this would be a good
solution and the entire manoeuvre can be
carried out in clear visual conditions.
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(ii) Response to warnings. Objective: To verify
that the pilot properly interprets and responds
to warnings. Criteria: The pilot should
demonstrate an understanding of the following:
(A) The need, without delay, to initiate a climb
in the manner specified by the operator.
(B) The need, without delay, to maintain the
climb until visual verification can be made that
the aircraft will clear the terrain or obstacle
ahead or until above the appropriate sector safe
altitude (if certain about the location of the
aircraft with respect to terrain) even if the
TAWS warning stops. If, subsequently, the
aircraft climbs up through the sector safe
altitude, but the visibility does not allow the
flight crew to confirm that the terrain hazard
has ended, checks should be made to verify the
location of the aircraft and to confirm that the
altimeter subscale settings are correct.
(C) When the workload permits that, the flight
crew should notify the air traffic controller of
the new position and altitude/flight level, and
what the commander intends to do next.
(D) That the manner in which the climb is
made should reflect the type of aircraft and the
method specified by the aircraft manufacturer
(which should be reflected in the operations
manual) for performing the escape manoeuvre.
Essential aspects will include the need for an
increase in pitch attitude, selection of
maximum thrust, confirmation that external
sources of drag (e.g. spoilers/speed brakes) are
retracted, and respect of the stick shaker or
other indication of eroded stall margin.
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(E) That TAWS warnings should never be
ignored. However, the pilot’s response may be
limited to that which is appropriate for a
caution, only if:
(a) the aircraft is being operated by day in clear,
visual conditions; and
(b) it is immediately clear to the pilot that the
aircraft is in no danger in respect of its
configuration, proximity to terrain or current
flight path.
(4) TAWS initial evaluation:
(i) The flight crew member’s understanding of
the academic training items should be assessed
by means of a written test.
(ii) The flight crew member’s understanding of
the manoeuvre training items should be
assessed in a FSTD equipped with TAWS
visual and aural displays and inhibit selectors
similar in appearance and operation to those in
the aircraft which the pilot will fly. The results
should be assessed by a synthetic flight
instructor, synthetic flight examiner, type rating
instructor or type rating examiner.
(iii) The range of scenarios should be designed
to give confidence that proper and timely
responses to TAWS cautions and warnings will
result in the aircraft avoiding a CFIT accident.
To achieve this objective, the pilot should
demonstrate taking the correct action to prevent
a caution developing into a warning and,
separately, the escape manoeuvre needed in
response to a warning. These demonstrations
should take place when the external visibility
iszero, though there is much to be learnt if,
initially, the training is given in 'mountainous'
or 'hilly' terrain with clear visibility. This
training should comprise a sequence of
scenarios, rather than be included in line
oriented flight training (LOFT).
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(iv) A record should be made, after the pilot has
demonstrated competence, of the scenarios that
were practised.
(5) TAWS recurrent training:
(i) TAWS recurrent training ensures that pilots
maintain the appropriate TAWS knowledge and
skills. In particular, it reminds pilots of the need
to act promptly in response to cautions and
warnings, and of the unusual attitude associated
with flying the escape manoeuvre.
(ii) An essential item of recurrent training is the
discussion of any significant issues and
operational concerns that have been identified
by the operator. Recurrent training should also
address changes to TAWS logic, parameters or
procedures and to any unique TAWS
characteristics of which pilots should be aware.
(6) Reporting procedures:
(i) Verbal reports. Verbal reports should be
made promptly to the appropriate air traffic
control unit:
(A) whenever any manoeuvre has caused the
aircraft to deviate from an air traffic clearance;
(B) when, following a manoeuvre which has
caused the aircraft to deviate from an air traffic
clearance, the aircraft has returned to a flight
path which complies with the clearance; and/or
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(C) when an air traffic control unit issues
instructions which, if followed, would cause the
pilot to manoeuvre the aircraft towards terrain
or obstacle or it would appear from the display
that a potential CFIT occurrence is likely to
result.
(ii) Written reports. Written reports should be
submitted in accordance with the operator's
occurrence reporting scheme and they also
should be recorded in the aircraft technical log:
(A) whenever the aircraft flight path has been
modified in response to a TAWS alert (false,
nuisance or genuine);
(B) whenever a TAWS alert has been issued
and is believed to have been false; and/or
(C) if it is believed that a TAWS alert should
have been issued, but was not.
(iii) Within this GM and with regard to reports:
(A) the term 'false' means that the TAWS
issued an alert which could not possibly be
justified by the position of the aircraft in
respect to terrain and it is probable that a fault
or failure in the system (equipment and/or input
data) was the cause;
(B) the term 'nuisance' means that the TAWS
issued an alert which was appropriate, but was
not needed because the flight crew could
determine by independent means that the flight
path was, at that time, safe;
(C) the term 'genuine' means that the TAWS
issued an alert which was both appropriate and
necessary; and
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(D) the report terms described in (c)(6)(iii) are
only meant to be assessed after the occurrence
is over, to facilitate subsequent analysis, the
adequacy of the equipment and the programmes
it contains. The intention is not for the flight
crew to attempt to classify an alert into any of
these three categories when visual and/or aural
cautions or warnings are annunciated.
CAT.OP.MPA.295 Use of airborne The operator shall establish operational
collision avoidance system (ACAS) procedures and training programmes when
ACAS is installed and serviceable. When
ACAS II is used, such procedures and training
shall be in accordance with Commission
Regulation (EU) No 1332/2011.
GENERAL (a) The ACAS operational procedures and
training programmes established by the
operator should take into account this GM. It
incorporates advice contained in:
(1) (1) ICAO PANS-OPS, Volume 18 Flight
Procedures, Attachment A (ACAS Training
Guidelines for Pilots) and Attachment B
(ACAS High Vertical Rate Encounters) to Part
III, Section 3, Chapter 3; and
(2) ICAO PANS-ATM9 Chapters 12 and 15
phraseology requirements;
(3) ICAO Annex 10, Volume IV;
(4) ICAO PANS-OPS, Volume 1;
(5) ICAO PANS-ATM; and
(6) ICAO guidance material ‘ACAS
Performance-Based Training Objectives’
(published under Attachment E of State Letter
AN 7/1.3.7.2-97/77).
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(b) Additional guidance material on ACAS may
be referred to, including information available
from such sources as EUROCONTROL.
ACAS FLIGHT CREW TRAINING (c) During the implementation of ACAS,
PROGRAMMES several operational issues were identified which
had been attributed to deficiencies in flight
crew training programmes. As a result, the
issue of flight crew training has been discussed
within the ICAO, which has developed
guidelines for operators to use when designing
training programmes.
(d) This GM contains performance-based
training objectives for ACAS II flight crew
training. Information contained in this paper
related to traffic advisories (TAs) is also
applicable to ACAS I and ACAS II users. The
training objectives cover five areas: theory of
operation; pre-flight operations; general in-
flight operations; response to TAs; and
response to resolution advisories (RAs).
(e) The information provided is valid for
version 7 and 7.1 (ACAS II). Where
differences arise, these are identified.
(f) The performance-based training objectives
are further divided into the areas of: academic
training; manoeuvre training; initial evaluation
and recurrent qualification. Under each of these
four areas, the training material has been
separated into those items which are considered
essential training items and those which are
considered desirable. In each area, objectives
and acceptable performance criteria are
defined.
(g) ACAS academic training
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(1) This training is typically conducted in a
classroom environment. The knowledge
demonstrations specified in this section may be
completed through the successful completion of
written tests or through providing correct
responses to non-real-time computer-based
training (CBT) questions.
(2) Essential items
(i) Theory of operation. The flight crew
member should demonstrate an understanding
of ACAS II operation and the criteria used for
issuing TAs and RAs. This training should
address the following topics:
(A) System operation
Objective: to demonstrate knowledge of how
ACAS functions. Criteria: the flight crew
member should demonstrate an understanding
of the following functions:
(a) Surveillance
(1) ACAS interrogates other transponder-
equipped aircraft within a nominal range of 14
NM.
(2) ACAS surveillance range can be reduced in
geographic areas with a large number of ground
interrogators and/or ACAS II-equipped aircraft.
(3) If the operator's ACAS implementation
provides for the use of the Mode S extended
squitter, the normal surveillance range may be
increased beyond the nominal 14 NM.
However, this information is not used for
collision avoidance purposes.
(b) Collision avoidance
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(1) TAs can be issued against any transponder-
equipped aircraft which responds to the ICAO
Mode C interrogations, even if the aircraft does
not have altitude reporting capability.
(2) RAs can be issued only against aircraft that
are reporting altitude and in the vertical plane
only.
(3) RAs issued against an ACAS-equipped
intruder are co-ordinated to ensure
complementary RAs are issued.
(4) Failure to respond to an RA deprives own
aircraft of the collision protection provided by
own ACAS.
(5) Additionally, in ACAS-ACAS encounters,
failure to respond to an RA also restricts the
choices available to the other aircraft's ACAS
and thus renders the other aircraft's ACAS less
effective than if own aircraft were not ACAS-
equipped.
(B) Advisory thresholds
Objective: to demonstrate knowledge of the
criteria for issuing TAs and RAs
Criteria: the flight crew member should
demonstrate an understanding of the
methodology used by ACAS to issue TAs and
RAs and the general criteria for the issuance of
these advisories, including the following:
(a) ACAS advisories are based on time to
closest point of approach (CPA) rather than
distance. The time should be short and vertical
separation should be small, or projected to be
small, before an advisory can be issued. The
separation standards provided by ATS are
different from the miss distances against which
ACAS issues alerts.
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(b) Thresholds for issuing a TA or an RA vary
with altitude. The thresholds are larger at
higher altitudes.
(c) A TA occurs from 15 to 48 seconds and an
RA from 15 to 35 seconds before the projected
CPA.
(d) RAs are chosen to provide the desired
vertical miss distance at CPA. As a result, RAs
can instruct a climb or descent through the
intruder aircraft's altitude
(C) ACAS limitations
Objective: to verify that the flight crew member
is aware of the limitations of ACAS. Criteria:
the flight crew member should demonstrate
knowledge and understanding of ACAS
limitations, including the following:
(a) ACAS will neither track nor display non-
transponder-equipped aircraft, nor aircraft not
responding to ACAS Mode C interrogations.
(b) ACAS will automatically fail if the input
from the aircraft’s barometric altimeter, radio
altimeter or transponder is lost.
(1) In some installations, the loss of
information from other on board systems such
as an inertial reference system (IRS) or attitude
heading reference system (AHRS) may result in
an ACAS failure. Individual operators should
ensure that their flight crews are aware of the
types of failure that will result in an ACAS
failure.
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(2) ACAS may react in an improper manner
when false altitude information is provided to
own ACAS or transmitted by another aircraft.
Individual operators should ensure that their
flight crew are aware of the types of unsafe
conditions that can arise. Flight crew members
should ensure that when they are advised, if
their own aircraft is transmitting false altitude
reports, an alternative altitude reporting source
is selected, or altitude reporting is switched off.
(c) Some aeroplanes within 380 ft above
ground level (AGL) (nominal value) are
deemed to be ‘on ground’ and will not be
displayed. If ACAS is able to determine an
aircraft below this altitude is airborne, it will be
displayed
(d) ACAS may not display all proximate
transponder-equipped aircraft in areas of high
density traffic.
(e) The bearing displayed by ACAS is not
sufficiently accurate to support the initiation of
horizontal manoeuvres based solely on the
traffic display.
(f) ACAS will neither track nor display
intruders with a vertical speed in excess of 10
000 ft/min. In addition, the design
implementation may result in some short-term
errors in the tracked vertical speed of an
intruder during periods of high vertical
acceleration by the intruder.
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(g) Ground proximity warning systems/ground
collision avoidance systems (GPWSs/GCASs)
warnings and wind shear warnings take
precedence over ACAS advisories. When either
a GPWS/GCAS or wind shear warning is
active, ACAS aural annunciations will be
inhibited and ACAS will automatically switch
to the 'TA only' mode of operation.
(D) ACAS inhibits
Objective: to verify that the flight crew member
is aware of the conditions under which certain
functions of ACAS are inhibited. Criteria: the
flight crew member should demonstrate
knowledge and understanding of the various
ACAS inhibits, including the following:
(a) ‘Increase Descent’ RAs are inhibited below
1 450 ft AGL;
(b) ‘Descend’ RAs are inhibited below 1 100 ft
AGL;
(c) all RAs are inhibited below 1 000 ft AGL;
(d) all TA aural annunciations are inhibited
below 500 ft AGL; and
(e) altitude and configuration under which
‘Climb’ and ‘Increase Climb’ RAs are
inhibited. ACAS can still issue ‘Climb’ and
‘Increase Climb’ RAs when operating at the
aeroplane's certified ceiling. (In some aircraft
types, ‘Climb’ or ‘Increase Climb’ RAs are
never inhibited.)
(ii) Operating procedures
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The flight crew member should demonstrate the
knowledge required to operate the ACAS
avionics and interpret the information presented
by ACAS. This training should address the
following:
(A) Use of controls
Objective: to verify that the pilot can properly
operate all ACAS and display controls.
Criteria: demonstrate the proper use of controls
including:
(a) aircraft configuration required to initiate a
self-test;
(b) steps required to initiate a self-test;
(c) recognising when the self-test was
successful and when it was unsuccessful. When
the self-test is unsuccessful, recognising the
reason for the failure and, if possible,
correcting the problem;
(d) recommended usage of range selection.
Low ranges are used in the terminal area and
the higher display ranges are used in the en-
route environment and in the transition between
the terminal and en-route environment;
(e) recognising that the configuration of the
display does not affect the ACAS surveillance
volume;
(f) selection of lower ranges when an advisory
is issued, to increase display resolution;
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(g) proper configuration to display the
appropriate ACAS information without
eliminating the display of other needed
information;
(h) if available, recommended usage of the
above/below mode selector. The above mode
should be used during climb and the below
mode should be used during descent; and
(i) if available, proper selection of the display
of absolute or relative altitude and the
limitations of using this display if a barometric
correction is not provided to ACAS.
(B) Display interpretation
Objective: to verify that the flight crew member
understands the meaning of all information that
can be displayed by ACAS. The wide variety of
display implementations require the tailoring of
some criteria. When the training programme is
developed, these criteria should be expanded to
cover details for the operator's specific display
implementation.
Criteria: the flight crew member should
demonstrate the ability to properly interpret
information displayed by ACAS, including the
following:
(a) other traffic, i.e. traffic within the selected
display range that is not proximate traffic, or
causing a TA or RA to be issued;
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(b) proximate traffic, i.e. traffic that is within 6
NM and ±1 200 ft;
(c) non-altitude reporting traffic;
(d) no bearing TAs and RAs;
(e) off-scale TAs and RAs: the selected range
should be changed to ensure that all available
information on the intruder is displayed;
(f) TAs: the minimum available display range
which allows the traffic to be displayed should
be selected, to provide the maximum display
resolution;
(g) RAs (traffic display): the minimum
available display range of the traffic display
which allows the traffic to be displayed should
be selected, to provide the maximum display
resolution;
(h) RAs (RA display): flight crew members
should demonstrate knowledge of the meaning
of the red and green areas or the meaning of
pitch or flight path angle cues displayed on the
RA display. Flight crew members should also
demonstrate an understanding of the RA
display limitations, i.e. if a vertical speed tape
is used and the range of the tape is less than 2
500 ft/min, an increase rate RA cannot be
properly displayed; and
(i) if appropriate, awareness that navigation
displays oriented on ‘TrackUp’ may require a
flight crew member to make a mental
adjustment for drift angle when assessing the
bearing of proximate traffic.
(C) Use of the TA-only mode
Objective: to verify that a flight crew member
understands the appropriate times to select the
TA-only mode of operation and the limitations
associated with using this mode.
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Criteria: the flight crew member should
demonstrate the following:
(a) Knowledge of the operator's guidance for
the use of TA only.
(b) Reasons for using this mode. If TA only is
not selected when an airport is conducting
simultaneous operations from parallel runways
separated by less than 1 200 ft, and to some
intersecting runways, RAs can be expected. If
for any reason TA only is not selected and an
RA is received in these situations, the response
should comply with the operator's approved
procedures.
(c) All TA aural annunciations are inhibited
below 500 ft AGL. As a result, TAs issued
below 500 ft AGL may not be noticed unless
the TA display is included in the routine
instrument scan.
(D) Crew coordination
Objective: to verify that the flight crew member
understands how ACAS advisories will be
handled.
Criteria: the flight crew member should
demonstrate knowledge of the crew procedures
that should be used when responding to TAs
and RAs, including the following:
(a) task sharing between the pilot flying and the
pilot monitoring;
(b) expected call-outs; and
(c) communications with ATC.
(E) Phraseology rules
Objective: to verify that the flight crew member
is aware of the rules for reporting RAs to the
controller.
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Criteria: the flight crew member should
demonstrate the following
(a) the use of the phraseology contained in
ICAO PANS-OPS;
(b) an understanding of the procedures
contained in ICAO PANS-ATM and ICAO
Annex 2; and
(c) the understanding that verbal reports should
be made promptly to the appropriate ATC unit:
(1) whenever any manoeuvre has caused the
aeroplane to deviate from an air traffic
clearance;
(2) when, subsequent to a manoeuvre that has
caused the aeroplane to deviate from an air
traffic clearance, the aeroplane has returned to a
flight path that complies with the clearance;
and/or
(3) when air traffic issue instructions that, if
followed, would cause the crew to manoeuvre
the aircraft contrary to an RA with which they
are complying.
(F) Reporting rules
Objective: to verify that the flight crew member
is aware of the rules for reporting RAs to the
operator.
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Criteria: the flight crew member should
demonstrate knowledge of where information
can be obtained regarding the need for making
written reports to various states when an RA is
issued. Various States have different
reportingrules and the material available to the
flight crew member should be tailored to the
operator’s operating environment. For
operators involved in commercial operations,
this responsibility is satisfied by the flight crew
member reporting to the operator according to
the applicable reporting rules
(3) Non-essential items: advisory thresholds
Objective: to demonstrate knowledge of the
criteria for issuing TAs and RAs.
Criteria: the flight crew member should
demonstrate an understanding of the
methodology used by ACAS to issue TAs and
RAs and the general criteria for the issuance of
these advisories, including the following:
(i) the minimum and maximum altitudes
below/above which TAs will not be issued;
(ii) when the vertical separation at CPA is
projected to be less than the ACAS-desired
separation, a corrective RA which requires a
change to the existing vertical speed will be
issued. This separation varies from 300 ft at
low altitude to a maximum of 700 ft at high
altitude;
(iii) when the vertical separation at CPA is
projected to be just outside the ACAS-desired
separation, a preventive RA that does not
require a change to the existing vertical speed
will be issued. This separation varies from 600
to 800 ft; and
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(iv) RA fixed range thresholds vary between
0.2 and 1.1 NM.
(h) ACAS manoeuvre training
(1) Demonstration of the flight crew member’s
ability to use ACAS displayed information to
properly respond to TAs and RAs should be
carried out in a full flight simulator equipped
with an ACAS display and controls similar in
appearance and operation to those in the
aircraft. If a full flight simulator is utilised,
CRM should be practised during this training.
(2) Alternatively, the required demonstrations
can be carried out by means of an interactive
CBT with an ACAS display and controls
similar in appearance and operation to those in
the aircraft. This interactive CBT should depict
scenarios in which real-time responses should
be made. The flight crew member should be
informed whether or not the responses made
were correct. If the response was incorrect or
inappropriate, the CBT should show what the
correct response should be
(3) The scenarios included in the manoeuvre
training should include: corrective RAs; initial
preventive RAs; maintain rate RAs; altitude
crossing RAs; increase rate RAs; RA reversals;
weakening RAs; and multi-aircraft encounters.
The consequences of failure to respond
correctly should be demonstrated by reference
to actual incidents such as those publicised in
EUROCONTROL ACAS II Bulletins
(available on the EUROCONTROL website).
(i) TA responses
Objective: to verify that the pilot properly
interprets and responds to TAs. Criteria: the
pilot should demonstrate the following:
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(A) Proper division of responsibilities between
the pilot flying and the pilot monitoring. The
pilot flying should fly the aircraft using any
type-specific procedures and be prepared to
respond to any RA that might follow. For
aircraft without an RA pitch display, the pilot
flying should consider the likely magnitude of
an appropriate pitch change. The pilot
monitoring should provide updates on the
traffic location shown on the ACAS display,
using this information to help visually acquire
the intruder.
(B) Proper interpretation of the displayed
information. Flight crew members should
confirm that the aircraft they have visually
acquired is that which has caused the TA to be
issued. Use should be made of all information
shown on the display, note being taken of the
bearing and range of the intruder (amber
circle), whether it is above or below (data tag)
and its vertical speed direction (trend arrow).
(C) Other available information should be used
to assist in visual acquisition, including ATC
‘party-line’ information, traffic flow in use, etc.
(D) Because of the limitations described, the
pilot flying should not manoeuvre the aircraft
based solely on the information shown on the
ACAS display. No attempt should be made to
adjust the current flight path in anticipation of
what an RA would advise, except that if own
aircraft is approaching its cleared level at a high
vertical rate with a TA present, vertical rate
should be reduced to less than 1 500 ft/min.
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(E) When visual acquisition is attained, and as
long as no RA is received, normal right of way
rules should be used to maintain or attain safe
separation. No unnecessary manoeuvres should
be initiated. The limitations of making
manoeuvres based solely on visual acquisition,
especially at high altitude or at night, or
without a definite horizon should be
demonstrated as being understood.
(ii) RA responses
Objective: to verify that the pilot properly
interprets and responds to RAs. Criteria: the
pilot should demonstrate the following:
(A) Proper response to the RA, even if it is in
conflict with an ATC instruction and even if the
pilot believes that there is no threat present.
(B) Proper task sharing between the pilot flying
and the pilot monitoring. The pilot flying
should respond to a corrective RA with
appropriate control inputs. The pilot monitoring
should monitor the response to the RA and
should provide updates on the traffic location
by checking the traffic display. Proper crew
resource management (CRM) should be used.
(C) Proper interpretation of the displayed
information. The pilot should recognise the
intruder causing the RA to be issued (red
square on display). The pilot should respond
appropriately.
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(D) For corrective RAs, the response should be
initiated in the proper direction within five
seconds of the RA being displayed. The change
in vertical speed should be accomplished with
an acceleration of approximately ¼ g
(gravitational acceleration of 9.81 m/sec²).
(E) Recognition of the initially displayed RA
being modified. Response to the modified RA
should be properly accomplished, as follows:
(a) For increase rate RAs, the vertical speed
change should be started within two and a half
seconds of the RA being displayed. The change
in vertical speed should be accomplished with
an acceleration of approximately ⅓ g
(b) For RA reversals, the vertical speed reversal
should be started within two and a half seconds
of the RA being displayed. The change in
vertical speed should be accomplished with an
acceleration of approximately ⅓ g.
(c) For RA weakenings, the vertical speed
should be modified to initiate a return towards
the original clearance.
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(d) An acceleration of approximately ¼ g will
be achieved if the change in pitch attitude
corresponding to a change in vertical speed of 1
500 ft/min is accomplished in approximately 5
seconds, and of ⅓ g if the change is
accomplished in approximately three seconds.
The change in pitch attitude required to
establish a rate of climb or descent of 1 500
ft/min from level flight will be approximately
6 when the true airspeed (TAS) is 150 kt, 4 at
250 kt, and 2 at 500 kt. (These angles are
derived from the formula: 1 000 divided by
TAS.).
(F) Recognition of altitude crossing encounters
and the proper response to these RAs.
(G) For preventive RAs, the vertical speed
needle or pitch attitude indication should
remain outside the red area on the RA display.
(H) For maintain rate RAs, the vertical speed
should not be reduced. Pilots should recognise
that a maintain rate RA may result in crossing
through the intruder's altitude.
(I) When the RA weakens, or when the green
'fly to' indicator changes position, the pilot
should initiate a return towards the original
clearance and when ‘clear of conflict’ is
annunciated, the pilot should complete the
return to the original clearance.
(J) The controller should be informed of the RA
as soon as time and workload permit, using the
standard phraseology.
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(K) When possible, an ATC clearance should
be complied with while responding to an RA.
For example, if the aircraft can level at the
assigned altitude while responding to RA (an
‘adjust vertical speed’ RA (version 7) or ‘level
off’ (version 7.1)) it should be done; the
horizontal (turn) element of an ATC instruction
should be followed.
(L) Knowledge of the ACAS multi-aircraft
logic and its limitations, and that ACAS can
optimise separations from two aircraft by
climbing or descending towards one of them.
For example, ACAS only considers intruders
that it considers to be a threat when selecting an
RA. As such, it is possible for ACAS to issue
an RA against one intruder that results in a
manoeuvre towards another intruder which is
not classified as a threat. If the second intruder
becomes a threat, the RA will be modified to
provide separation from that intruder.
(i) ACAS initial evaluation
(1) The flight crew member’s understanding of
the academic training items should be assessed
by means of a written test or interactive CBT
that records correct and incorrect responses to
phrased questions.
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(2) The flight crew member’s understanding of
the manoeuvre training items should be
assessed in a full flight simulator equipped with
an ACAS display and controls similar in
appearance and operation to those in the
aircraft the flight crew member will fly, and the
results assessed by a qualified instructor,
inspector, or check airman. The range of
scenarios should include: corrective RAs;
initial preventive RAs; maintain rate RAs;
altitude crossing RAs; increase rate RAs; RA
reversals; weakening RAs; and multi-threat
encounters. The scenarios should also include
demonstrations of the consequences of not
responding to RAs, slow or late responses, and
manoeuvring opposite to the direction called
for by the displayed RA.
(3) Alternatively, exposure to these scenarios
can be conducted by means of an interactive
CBT with an ACAS display and controls
similar in appearance and operation to those in
the aircraft the pilot will fly. This interactive
CBT should depict scenarios in which real-time
responses should be made and a record made of
whether or not each response was correct
(j) ACAS recurrent training
(1) ACAS recurrent training ensures that flight
crew members maintain the appropriate ACAS
knowledge and skills. ACAS recurrent training
should be integrated into and/or conducted in
conjunction with other established recurrent
training programmes. An essential item of
recurrent training is the discussion of any
significant issues and operational concerns that
have been identified by the operator. Recurrent
training should also address changes to ACAS
logic, parameters or procedures and to any
unique ACAS characteristics which flight crew
members should be made aware of.
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(2) It is recommended that the operator's
recurrent training programmes using full flight
simulators include encounters with conflicting
traffic when these simulators are equipped with
ACAS. The full range of likely scenarios may
be spread over a 2-year period. If a full flight
simulator, as described above, is not available,
use should be made of interactive CBT that is
capable of presenting scenarios to which pilot
responses should be made in real time.
CAT.OP.MPA.300 Approach and landing Before commencing an approach to land, the
conditions commander shall be satisfied that, according to
the information available to him/her, the
weather at the aerodrome and the condition of
the runway or FATO intended to be used
should not prevent a safe approach, landing or
missed approach, having regard to the
performance information contained in the
operations manual.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.300 Approach and ---
landing conditions
IN-FLIGHT DETERMINATION OF THE ---
LANDING DISTANCE
The in-flight determination of the landing
distance should be based on the latest available
meteorological or runway state report,
preferably not more than 30 minutes before the
expected landing time.
CAT.OP.MPA.305 Commencement and (a) The commander or the pilot to whom
continuation of approach conduct of the flight has been delegated may
commence an instrument approach regardless
- GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.305(f) of the reported RVR/VIS.
(b) If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the ---
applicable minimum the approach shall not be
continued:
(1) below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome; or
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(2) into the final approach segment in the case
where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1 000
ft above the aerodrome.
(c) Where the RVR is not available, RVR
values may be derived by converting the
reported visibility.
(d) If, after passing 1 000 ft above the
aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below
the applicable minimum, the approach may be
continued to DA/H or MDA/H.
(e) The approach may be continued below
DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be
completed provided that the visual reference
adequate for the type of approach operation and
for the intended runway is established at the
DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.
(f) The touchdown zone RVR shall always be
controlling. If reported and relevant, the
midpoint and stopend RVR shall also be
controlling. The minimum RVR value for the
midpoint shall be 125 m or the RVR required
for the touchdown zone if less, and 75 m for the
stopend. For aircraft equipped with a rollout
guidance or control system, the minimum RVR
value for the midpoint shall be 75 m.
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.305(e) ---
Commencement and continuation of
approach
VISUAL REFERENCES FOR ---
INSTRUMENT APPROACH
OPERATIONS
(a) NPA, APV and CAT I operations ---
At DH or MDH, at least one of the visual ---
references specified below should be distinctly
visible and identifiable to the pilot:
(1) elements of the approach lighting system;
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(2) the threshold;
(3) the threshold markings;
(4) the threshold lights;
(5) the threshold identification lights;
(6) the visual glide slope indicator;
(7) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone
markings;
(8) the touchdown zone lights;
(9) FATO/runway edge lights; or
(10) other visual references specified in the
operations manual.
(b) LTS CAT I operations ---
At DH, the visual references specified below ---
should be distinctly visible and identifiable to
the pilot:
(1) a segment of at least three consecutive
lights, being the centreline of the approach
lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway
centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a
combination of these;
(2) this visual reference should include a lateral
element of the ground pattern, such as an
approach light crossbar or the landing threshold
or a barrette of the touchdown zone light unless
the operation is conducted utilising an approved
HUDLS usable to at least 150 ft.
(c) CAT II or OTS CAT II operations ---
At DH, the visual references specified below
should be distinctly visible and identifiable to
the pilot:
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(1) a segment of at least three consecutive
lights being the centreline of the approach
lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway
centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a
combination of these;
(2) this visual reference should include a lateral
element of the ground pattern, such as an
approach light crossbar or the landing threshold
or a barrette of the touchdown zone light unless
the operation is conducted utilising an approved
HUDLS to touchdown.
(d) CAT III operations ---
(1) For CAT IIIA operations and for CAT IIIB
operations conducted either with fail-passive
flight control systems or with the use of an
approved HUDLS: at DH, a segment of at least
three consecutive lights being the centreline of
the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights,
or runway centreline lights, or runway edge
lights, or a combination of these is attained and
can be maintained by the pilot.
(2) For CAT IIIB operations conducted either
with fail-operational flight control systems or
with a fail-operational hybrid landing system
using a DH: at DH, at least one centreline light
is attained and can be maintained by the pilot.
(3) For CAT IIIB operations with no DH there
is no specification for visual reference with the
runway prior to touchdown.
(e) Approach operations utilising EVS – CAT I ---
operations
(1) At DH, the following visual references
should be displayed and identifiable to the pilot
on the EVS image:
(i) elements of the approach light; or
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(ii) the runway threshold, identified by at least ---
one of the following:
(A) the beginning of the runway landing
surface,
(B) the threshold lights, the threshold
identification lights; or
(C) the touchdown zone, identified by at least
one of the following: the runway touchdown
zone landing surface, the touchdown zone
lights, the touchdown zone markings or the
runway lights.
(2) At 100 ft above runway threshold elevation ---
at least one of the visual references specified
below should be distinctly visible and
identifiable to the pilot without reliance on the
EVS:
(i) the lights or markings of the threshold; or
(ii) the lights or markings of the touchdown
zone.
(f) Approach operations utilising EVS – APV ---
and NPA operations flown with the CDFA
technique
(1) At DH/MDH, visual references should be
displayed and identifiable to the pilot on the
EVS image as specified under (a).
(2) At 200 ft above runway threshold elevation,
at least one of the visual references specified
under (a) should be distinctly visible and
identifiable to the pilot without reliance on the
EVS.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.305(f)
Commencement and continuation of
approach
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EXPLANATION OF THE TERM ‘Relevant’ in this context means that part of the
‘RELEVANT’ runway used during the high-speed phase of the
landing down to a speed of approximately 60
kt.
CAT.OP.MPA.310 Operating procedures The operator shall establish operational
— threshold crossing height — procedures designed to ensure that an aeroplane
aeroplanes conducting precision approaches crosses the
threshold of the runway by a safe margin, with
the aeroplane in the landing configuration and
attitude.
CAT.OP.MPA.315 Flight hours reporting The operator shall make available to the
— helicopters competent authority the hours flown for each
helicopter operated during the previous
calendar year.
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.315 Flight hours
reporting — helicopters
FLIGHT HOURS REPORTING (a) The requirement in CAT.OP.MPA.315 may
be achieved by making available either:
(1) the flight hours flown by each helicopter —
identified by its serial number and registration
mark — during the previous calendar year; or
(2) the total flight hours of each helicopter —
identified by its serial number and registration
mark — on the 31st of December of the
previous calendar year.
(b) Where possible, the operator should have
available, for each helicopter, the breakdown of
hours for CAT operations. If the exact hours for
the functional activity cannot be established,
the estimated proportion will be sufficient.
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CAT.OP.MPA.320 Aircraft categories (a) Aircraft categories shall be based on the
indicated airspeed at threshold (VAT ) which is
equal to the stalling speed (VSO ) multiplied by
1,3 or one-g (gravity) stall speed (VS1g )
multiplied by 1,23 in the landing configuration
at the maximum certified landing mass. If both
VSO and VS1g are available, the higher resulting
VAT shall be used.
(b) The aircraft categories specified in the table
below shall be used.
(*See Table 1 Aircraft categories
corresponding to VAT values)
(c) The landing configuration that is to be taken
into consideration shall be specified in the
operations manual.
(d) The operator may apply a lower landing YES
mass for determining the VAT if approved by
the competent authority. Such a lower landing
mass shall be a permanent value, independent
of the changing conditions of day-to-day
operations.
---
SUBPART C ---
AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AND ---
OPERATING LIMITATIONS
SECTION 1 ---
Aeroplanes ---
CHAPTER1 ---
Generalrequirements ---
CAT.POL.A.100 Performance classes (a) The aeroplane shall be operated in
accordance with the applicable performance
class requirements.
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(b) Where full compliance with the applicable
requirements of this Section cannot be shown
due to specific design characteristics, the
operator shall apply approved performance
standards that ensure a level of safety
equivalent to that of the appropriate chapter.
CAT.POL.A.105 General (a) The mass of the aeroplane: ---
(1) at the start of the take-off; or
(2) in the event of in-flight replanning, at the
point from which the revised operational flight
plan applies,
shall not be greater than the mass at which the
requirements of the appropriate chapter can be
complied with for the flight to be undertaken.
Allowance may be made for expected
reductions in mass as the flight proceeds and
for fuel jettisoning.
(b) The approved performance data contained
in the AFM shall be used to determine
compliance with the requirements of the
appropriate chapter, supplemented as necessary
with other data as prescribed in the relevant
chapter. The operator shall specify other data in
the operations manual. When applying the
factors prescribed in the appropriate chapter,
account may be taken of any operational factors
already incorporated in the AFM performance
data to avoid double application of factors.
(c) Due account shall be taken of aeroplane
configuration, environmental conditions and
the operation of systems that have an adverse
effect on performance.
(d) For performance purposes, a damp runway,
other than a grass runway, may be considered
to be dry.
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(e) The operator shall take account of charting
accuracy when assessing the take-off
requirements of the applicable chapters.
CHAPTER2 ---
PerformanceclassA ---
CAT.POL.A.200 General (a) The approved performance data in the AFM ---
shall be supplemented as necessary with other
data if the approved performance data in the
AFM is insufficient in respect of items such as:
(1) accounting for reasonably expected adverse
operating conditions such as take-off and
landing on contaminated runways; and
(2) consideration of engine failure in all flight
phases.
(b) For wet and contaminated runways,
performance data determined in accordance
with applicable standards on certification of
large aeroplanes or equivalent shall be used.
(c) The use of other data referred to in (a) and
equivalent requirements referred to in (b) shall
be specified in the operations manual.
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.200 General ---
WET AND CONTAMINATED RUNWAY ---
DATA
If the performance data have been determined
on the basis of a measured runway friction
coefficient, the operator should use a procedure
correlating the measured runway friction
coefficient and the effective braking coefficient
of friction of the aeroplane type over the
required speed range for the existing runway
conditions.
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CAT.POL.A.205 Take-off (a) The take-off mass shall not exceed the
maximum take-off mass specified in the AFM
- GM1 CAT.POL.A.205 for the pressure altitude and the ambient
temperature at the aerodrome of departure.
(b) The following requirements shall be met ---
when determining the maximum permitted
take-off mass:
(1) the accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed
the accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA);
(2) the take-off distance shall not exceed the
take-off distance available, with a clearway
distance not exceeding half of the take-off run
available (TORA);
(3) the take-off run shall not exceed the TORA;
(4) a single value of V 1 shall be used for the
rejected and continued take-off; and
(5) on a wet or contaminated runway, the take-
off mass shall not exceed that permitted for a
take-off on a dry runway under the same
conditions.
(c) When showing compliance with (b), the ---
following shall be taken into account:
(1) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome;
(2) the ambient temperature at the aerodrome;
(3) the runway surface condition and the type
of runway surface;
(4) the runway slope in the direction of take-
off;
(5) not more than 50 % of the reported
headwind component or not less than 150 % of
the reported tailwind component; and
(6) the loss, if any, of runway length due to
alignment of the aeroplane prior to take-off.
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.205 Take-off ---
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LOSS OF RUNWAY LENGTH DUE TO ---
ALIGNMENT
(a) The length of the runway that is declared for ---
the calculation of take-off distance available
(TODA), accelerate-stop distance available
(ASDA) and take-off run available (TORA)
does not account for line-up of the aeroplane in
the direction of take-off on the runway in use.
This alignment distance depends on the
aeroplane geometry and access possibility to
the runway in use. Accountability is usually
required for a 90° taxiway entry to the runway
and 180° turnaround on the runway. There are
two distances to be considered:
(1) the minimum distance of the main wheels
from the start of the runway for determining
TODA and TORA,’L’; and
(2) the minimum distance of the most forward
wheel(s) from the start of the runway for
determining ASDA,’N’.
Figure 1: Line-up of the aeroplane in the ---
direction of take-off - L and N
(*See Figure 1)
Where the aeroplane manufacturer does not ---
provide the appropriate data, the calculation
method given in (b) should be used to
determine the alignment distance.
(b) Alignment distance calculation ---
(*See Figure and Table on page 156 of 330)
GM1 CAT.POL.A.205 Take-off
RUNWAY SURFACE CONDITION
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(a) Operation on runways contaminated with
water, slush, snow or ice implies uncertainties
with regard to runway friction and contaminant
drag and, therefore, to the achievable
performance and control of the aeroplane
during take-off, since the actual conditions may
not completely match the assumptions on
which the performance information is based. In
the case of a contaminated runway, the first
option for the commander is to wait until the
runway is cleared. If this is impracticable,
he/she may consider a take-off, provided that
he/she has applied the applicable performance
adjustments, and any further safety measures
he/she considers justified under the prevailing
conditions.
(b) An adequate overall level of safety will only
be maintained if operations in accordance with
AMC 25.1591 or equivalent are limited to rare
occasions. Where the frequency of such
operations on contaminated runways is not
limited to rare occasions, the operator should
provide additional measures ensuring an
equivalent level of safety. Such measures could
include special crew training, additional
distance factoring and more restrictive wind
limitations.
CAT.POL.A.210 Take-off obstacle (a) The net take-off flight path shall be
clearance determined in such a way that the aeroplane
clears all obstacles by a vertical distance of at
least 35 ft or by a horizontal distance of at least
90 m plus 0,125 × D, where D is the horizontal
distance the aeroplane has travelled from the
end of the take-off distance available (TODA)
or the end of the take-off distance if a turn is
scheduled before the end of the TODA. For
aeroplanes with a wingspan of less than 60 m, a
horizontal obstacle clearance of half the
aeroplane wingspan plus 60 m, plus 0,125 × D
may be used.
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(b) When showing compliance with (a): ---
(1) The following items shall be taken into ---
account:
(i) the mass of the aeroplane at the
commencement of the take-off run;
(ii) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the ambient temperature at the aerodrome;
and
(iv) not more than 50 % of the reported
headwind component or not less than 150 % of
the reported tailwind component.
(2) Track changes shall not be allowed up to
the point at which the net take-off flight path
has achieved a height equal to one half the
wingspan but not less than 50 ft above the
elevation of the end of the TORA. Thereafter,
up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the
aeroplane is banked by no more than 15°.
Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than
15°, but not more than 25° may be scheduled.
(3) Any part of the net take-off flight path in
which the aeroplane is banked by more than
15° shall clear all obstacles within the
horizontal distances specified in (a), (b)(6) and
(b)(7) by a vertical distance of at least 50 ft.
(4) Operations that apply increased bank angles
of not more than 20° between 200 ft and 400 ft,
or not more than 30° above 400 ft, shall be
carried out in accordance with
CAT.POL.A.240.
(5) Adequate allowance shall be made for the
effect of bank angle on operating speeds and
flight path including the distance increments
resulting from increased operating speeds.
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(6) For cases where the intended flight path ---
does not require track changes of more than
15°, the operator does not need to consider
those obstacles that have a lateral distance
greater than:
(i) 300 m, if the pilot is able to maintain the
required navigational accuracy through the
obstacle accountability area; or
(ii) 600 m, for flights under all other conditions.
(7) For cases where the intended flight path ---
requires track changes of more than 15°, the
operator does not need to consider those
obstacles that have a lateral distance greater
than:
(i) 600 m, if the pilot is able to maintain the
required navigational accuracy through the
obstacle accountability area; or
(ii) 900 m, for flights under all other conditions.
(c) The operator shall establish contingency
procedures to satisfy the requirements in (a)
and (b) and to provide a safe route, avoiding
obstacles, to enable the aeroplane to either
comply with the en-route requirements of
CAT.POL.A.215, or land at either the
aerodrome of departure or at a take-off
alternate aerodrome.
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.210 Take-off obstacle ---
clearance
TAKE-OFF OBSTACLE CLEARANCE ---
(a) In accordance with the definitions used in ---
preparing the take-off distance and take-off
flight path data provided in the AFM:
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(1) The net take-off flight path is considered to
begin at a height of 35 ft above the runway or
clearway at the end of the take-off distance
determined for the aeroplane in accordance
with (b) below.
(2) The take-off distance is the longest of the ---
following distances:
(i) 115 % of the distance with all engines
operating from the start of the take-off to the
point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the
runway or clearway;
(ii) the distance from the start of the take-off to
the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above
the runway or clearway assuming failure of the
critical engine occurs at the point
corresponding to the decision speed (V1) for a
dry runway; or
(iii) if the runway is wet or contaminated, the
distance from the start of the take-off to the
point at which the aeroplane is 15 ft above the
runway or clearway assuming failure of the
critical engine occurs at the point
corresponding to the decision speed (V1) for a
wet or contaminated runway.
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(b) The net take-off flight path, determined
from the data provided in the AFM in
accordance with (a)(1) and (a)(2), should clear
all relevant obstacles by a vertical distance of
35 ft. When taking off on a wet or
contaminated runway and an engine failure
occurs at the point corresponding to the
decision speed (V1) for a wet or contaminated
runway, this implies that the aeroplane can
initially be as much as 20 ft below the net take-
off flight path in accordance with (a) and,
therefore, may clear close-in obstacles by only
15 ft. When taking off on wet or contaminated
runways, the operator should exercise special
care with respect to obstacle assessment,
especially if a take-off is obstacle-limited and
the obstacle density is high.
AMC2 CAT.POL.A.210 Take-off obstacle ---
clearance
EFFECT OF BANK ANGLES ---
(a) The AFM generally provides a climb
gradient decrement for a 15° bank turn. For
bank angles of less than 15°, a proportionate
amount should be applied, unless the
manufacturer or AFM has provided other data.
(b) Unless otherwise specified in the AFM or
other performance or operating manuals from
the manufacturer, acceptable adjustments to
assure adequate stall margins and gradient
corrections are provided by the following table:
(*See Table 1: Effect of bank angles)
AMC3 CAT.POL.A.210 Take-off obstacle ---
clearance
REQUIRED NAVIGATIONAL ---
ACCURACY
(a) Navigation systems ---
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The obstacle accountability semi-widths of 300
m and 600 m may be used if the navigation
system under OEI conditions provides a two
standard deviation accuracy of 150 m and 300
m respectively.
(b) Visual course guidance ---
(1) The obstacle accountability semi-widths of
300 m and 600 m may be used where
navigational accuracy is ensured at all relevant
points on the flight path by use of external
references. These references may be considered
visible from the flight crew compartment if
they are situated more than 45° either side of
the intended track and with a depression of not
greater than 20° from the horizontal.
(2) For visual course guidance navigation, the ---
operator should ensure that the weather
conditions prevailing at the time of operation,
including ceiling and visibility, are such that
the obstacle and/or ground reference points can
be seen and identified. The operations manual
should specify, for the aerodrome(s) concerned,
the minimum weather conditions which enable
the flight crew to continuously determine and
maintain the correct flight path with respect to
ground reference points, so as to provide a safe
clearance with respect to obstructions and
terrain as follows:
(i) the procedure should be well defined with
respect to ground reference points so that the
track to be flown can be analysed for obstacle
clearance requirements;
(ii) the procedure should be within the
capabilities of the aeroplane with respect to
forward speed, bank angle and wind effects;
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(iii) a written and/or pictorial description of the
procedure should be provided for crew use; and
(iv) the limiting environmental conditions (such
as wind, the lowest cloud base, ceiling,
visibility, day/night, ambient lighting,
obstruction lighting) should be specified.
GM1 CAT.POL.A.210 Take-off obstacle
clearance
CONTINGENCY PROCEDURES FOR
OBSTACLES CLEARANCES
If compliance with CAT.POL.A.210 is based
on an engine failure route that differs from the
all engine departure route or SID normal
departure, a ‘deviation point’ can be identified
where the engine failure route deviates from the
normal departure route. Adequate obstacle
clearance along the normal departure route with
failure of the critical engine at the deviation
point will normally be available.
However, in certain situations the obstacle
clearance along the normal departure route may
be marginal and should be checked to ensure
that, in case of an engine failure after the
deviation point, a flight can safely proceed
along the normal departure route.
CAT.POL.A.215 En-route — one-engine- (a) The OEI en-route net flight path data shown
inoperative (OEI) in the AFM, appropriate to the meteorological
conditions expected for the flight, shall allow
demonstration of compliance with (b) or (c) at
all points along the route. The net flight path
shall have a positive gradient at 1 500 ft above
the aerodrome where the landing is assumed to
be made after engine failure. In meteorological
conditions requiring the operation of ice
protection systems, the effect of their use on the
net flight path shall be taken into account.
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(b) The gradient of the net flight path shall be
positive at least 1 000 ft above all terrain and
obstructions along the route within 9,3 km (5
NM) on either side of the intended track.
(c) The net flight path shall permit the ---
aeroplane to continue flight from the cruising
altitude to an aerodrome where a landing can be
made in accordance with CAT.POL.A.225 or
CAT.POL.A.230, as appropriate. The net flight
path shall clear vertically, by at least 2 000 ft,
all terrain and obstructions along the route
within 9,3 km (5 NM) on either side of the
intended track in accordance with the
following:
(1) the engine is assumed to fail at the most
critical point along the route;
(2) account is taken of the effects of winds on
the flight path;
(3) fuel jettisoning is permitted to an extent
consistent with reaching the aerodrome with the
required fuel reserves, if a safe procedure is
used; and
(4) the aerodrome where the aeroplane is ---
assumed to land after engine failure shall meet
the following criteria:
(i) the performance requirements at the
expected landing mass are met; and
(ii) weather reports and/or forecasts and field
condition reports indicate that a safe landing
can be accomplished at the estimated time of
landing.
(d) The operator shall increase the width
margins of (b) and (c) to 18,5 km (10 NM) if
the navigational accuracy does not meet at least
required navigation performance 5 (RNP5).
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.215 En-route – one- ---
engine-inoperative (OEI)
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ROUTE ANALYSIS ---
(a) The high terrain or obstacle analysis
required should be carried out by a detailed
analysis of the route.
(b) A detailed analysis of the route should be
made using contour maps of the high terrain
and plotting the highest points within the
prescribed corridor’s width along the route. The
next step is to determine whether it is possible
to maintain level flight with OEI 1 000 ft above
the highest point of the crossing. If this is not
possible, or if the associated weight penalties
are unacceptable, a driftdown procedure should
be worked out, based on engine failure at the
most critical point and clearing critical
obstacles during the driftdown by at least 2000
ft. The minimum cruise altitude is determined
by the intersection of the two driftdown paths,
taking into account allowances for decision
making (see Figure 1). This method is time-
consuming and requires the availability of
detailed terrain maps.
(c) Alternatively, the published minimum flight
altitudes (MEA or minimum off-route altitude
(MORA)) should be used for determining
whether OEI level flight is feasible at the
minimum flight altitude, or if it is necessary to
use the published minimum flight altitudes as
the basis for the driftdown construction (see
Figure 1). This procedure avoids a detailed high
terrain contour analysis, but could be more
penalising than taking the actual terrain profile
into account as in (b).
(*See Figure 1: Intersection of the two
driftdown paths)
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(d) In order to comply with CAT.POL.A.215
(c), one means of compliance is the use of
MORA and, with CAT.POL.A.215 (d), MEA
provided that the aeroplane meets the
navigational equipment standard assumed in
the definition of MEA.
Note: MEA or MORA normally provide the ---
required 2 000 ft obstacle clearance for
driftdown. However, at and below 6 000 ft
altitude, MEA and MORA cannot be used
directly as only 1 000 ft clearance is ensured.
CAT.POL.A.220 En-route — aeroplanes (a) At no point along the intended track shall an
with three or more engines, two engines aeroplane having three or more engines be
inoperative more than 90 minutes, at the all-engines long
range cruising speed at standard temperature in
still air, away from an aerodrome at which the
performance requirements applicable at the
expected landing mass are met, unless it
complies with (b) to (f).
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(b) The two-engines-inoperative en-route net
flight path data shall allow the aeroplane to
continue the flight, in the expected
meteorological conditions, from the point
where two engines are assumed to fail
simultaneously to an aerodrome at which it is
possible to land and come to a complete stop
when using the prescribed procedure for a
landing with two engines inoperative. The net
flight path shall clear vertically, by at least 2
000 ft, all terrain and obstructions along the
route within 9,3 km (5 NM) on either side of
the intended track. At altitudes and in
meteorological conditions requiring ice
protection systems to be operable, the effect of
their use on the net flight path data shall be
taken into account. If the navigational accuracy
does not meet at least RNP5, the operator shall
increase the width margin given above to 18,5
km (10 NM).
(c) The two engines shall be assumed to fail at
the most critical point of that portion of the
route where the aeroplane is more than 90
minutes, at the all-engines long range cruising
speed at standard temperature in still air, away
from an aerodrome at which the performance
requirements applicable at the expected landing
mass are met.
(d) The net flight path shall have a positive
gradient at 1 500 ft above the aerodrome where
the landing is assumed to be made after the
failure of two engines.
(e) Fuel jettisoning shall be permitted to an
extent consistent with reaching the aerodrome
with the required fuel reserves, if a safe
procedure is used.
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(f) The expected mass of the aeroplane at the
point where the two engines are assumed to fail
shall not be less than that which would include
sufficient fuel to proceed to an aerodrome
where the landing is assumed to be made, and
to arrive there at least 1 500 ft directly over the
landing area and thereafter to fly level for 15
minutes.
CAT.POL.A.225 Landing — destination (a) The landing mass of the aeroplane
and alternate aerodromes determined in accordance with
CAT.POL.A.105(a) shall not exceed the
- GM1 CAT.POL.A.225 maximum landing mass specified for the
altitude and the ambient temperature expected
for the estimated time of landing at the
destination aerodrome and alternate aerodrome.
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.225 Landing – ---
destination and alternate aerodromes
ALTITUDE MEASURING ---
The operator should use either pressure altitude
or geometric altitude for its operation and this
should be reflected in the operations manual.
AMC2 CAT.POL.A.225 Landing – ---
destination and alternate aerodromes
MISSED APPROACH ---
(a) For instrument approaches with a missed
approach climb gradient greater than 2.5 %, the
operator should verify that the expected landing
mass of the aeroplane allows for a missed
approach with a climb gradient equal to or
greater than the applicable missed approach
gradient in the OEI missed approach
configuration and at the associated speed.
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(b) For instrument approaches with DH below
200 ft, the operator should verify that the
expected landing mass of the aeroplane allows
a missed approach gradient of climb, with the
critical engine failed and with the speed and
configuration used for a missed approach of at
least 2.5 %, or the published gradient,
whichever is greater.
GM1 CAT.POL.A.225 Landing —
destination and alternate aerodromes
MISSED APPROACH GRADIENT
(a) Where an aeroplane cannot achieve the
missed approach gradient specified in AMC2
CAT.POL.A.225, when operating at or near
maximum certificated landing mass and in
engine-out conditions, the operator has the
opportunity to propose an alternative means of
compliance to the competent authority
demonstrating that a missed approach can be
executed safely taking into account appropriate
mitigating measures.
(b) The proposal for an alternative means of
compliance may involve the following:
(1) considerations to mass, altitude and
temperature limitations and wind for the missed
approach;
(2) a proposal to increase the DA/H or MDA/H;
and
(3) a contingency procedure ensuring a safe
route and avoiding obstacles.
CAT.POL.A.230 Landing — dry runways (a) The landing mass of the aeroplane ---
determined in accordance with
- GM1 CAT.POL.A.230 CAT.POL.A.105(a) for the estimated time of
landing at the destination aerodrome and at any
alternate aerodrome shall allow a full stop
landing from 50 ft above the threshold:
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(1) for turbo-jet powered aeroplanes, within 60
% of the landing distance available (LDA); and
(2) for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes,
within 70 % of the LDA.
(b) For steep approach operations, the operator
shall use the landing distance data factored in
accordance with (a), based on a screen height
of less than 60 ft, but not less than 35 ft, and
shall comply with CAT.POL.A.245.
(c) For short landing operations, the operator
shall use the landing distance data factored in
accordance with (a) and shall comply with
CAT.POL.A.250.
(d) When determining the landing mass, the ---
operator shall take the following into account:
(1) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(2) not more than 50 % of the headwind
component or not less than 150 % of the
tailwind component; and
(3) the runway slope in the direction of landing
if greater than ± 2 %.
(e) For dispatching the aeroplane it shall be ---
assumed that:
(1) the aeroplane will land on the most
favourable runway, in still air; and
(2) the aeroplane will land on the runway most
likely to be assigned, considering the probable
wind speed and direction, the ground handling
characteristics of the aeroplane and other
conditions such as landing aids and terrain.
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(f) If the operator is unable to comply with
(e)(1) for a destination aerodrome having a
single runway where a landing depends upon a
specified wind component, the aeroplane may
be dispatched if two alternate aerodromes are
designated that permit full compliance with (a)
to (e). Before commencing an approach to land
at the destination aerodrome, the commander
shall check that a landing can be made in full
compliance with (a) to (d) and
CAT.POL.A.225.
(g) If the operator is unable to comply with
(e)(2) for the destination aerodrome, the
aeroplane shall be only dispatched if an
alternate aerodrome is designated that allows
full compliance with (a) to (e).
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.230 Landing – dry ---
runways
FACTORING OF AUTOMATIC ---
LANDING DISTANCE PERFORMANCE
DATA
In those cases where the landing requires the ---
use of an automatic landing system, and the
distance published in the AFM includes safety
margins equivalent to those contained in
CAT.POL.A.230 (a)(1) and CAT.POL.A.235,
the landing mass of the aeroplane should be the
lesser of:
(a) the landing mass determined in accordance
with CAT.POL.A.230 (a)(1) or
CAT.POL.A.235 as appropriate; or
(b) the landing mass determined for the
automatic landing distance for the appropriate
surface condition, as given in the AFM or
equivalent document. Increments due to system
features such as beam location or elevations, or
procedures such as use of overspeed, should
also be included.
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GM1 CAT.POL.A.230 Landing — dry
runways
LANDING MASS CAT.POL.A.230 establishes two considerations
in determining the maximum permissible
landing mass at the destination and alternate
aerodromes:
(a) Firstly, the aeroplane mass will be such that
on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within
60 % or 70 % (as applicable) of the landing
distance available (LDA) on the most
favourable (normally the longest) runway in
still air. Regardless of the wind conditions, the
maximum landing mass for an
aerodrome/aeroplane configuration at a
particular aerodrome cannot be exceeded.
(b) Secondly, consideration should be given to
anticipated conditions and circumstances. The
expected wind, or ATC and noise abatement
procedures, may indicate the use of a different
runway. These factors may result in a lower
landing mass than that permitted under (a), in
which case dispatch should be based on this
lesser mass.
(c) The expected wind referred to in (b) is the
wind expected to exist at the time of arrival.
CAT.POL.A.235 Landing — wet and (a) When the appropriate weather reports
contaminated runways and/or forecasts indicate that the runway at the
estimated time of arrival may be wet, the LDA
shall be at least 115 % of the required landing
distance, determined in accordance with
CAT.POL.A.230.
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(b) When the appropriate weather reports
and/or forecasts indicate that the runway at the
estimated time of arrival may be contaminated,
the LDA shall be at least the landing distance
determined in accordance with (a), or at least
115 % of the landing distance determined in
accordance with approved contaminated
landing distance data or equivalent, whichever
is greater. The operator shall specify in the
operations manual if equivalent landing
distance data are to be applied.
(c) A landing distance on a wet runway shorter
than that required by (a), but not less than that
required by CAT.POL.A.230(a), may be used if
the AFM includes specific additional
information about landing distances on wet
runways.
(d) A landing distance on a specially prepared
contaminated runway shorter than that required
by (b), but not less than that required by
CAT.POL.A.230(a), may be used if the AFM
includes specific additional information about
landing distances on contaminated runways.
(e) For (b), (c) and (d), the criteria of
CAT.POL.A.230 shall be applied accordingly,
except that CAT.POL.A.230(a) shall not be
applied to (b) above.
CAT.POL.A.240 Approval of operations (a) Operations with increased bank angles YES
with increased bank angles require prior approval by the competent
authority.
(b) To obtain the approval, the operator shall ---
provide evidence that the following conditions
are met:
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(1) the AFM contains approved data for the
required increase of operating speed and data to
allow the construction of the flight path
considering the increased bank angles and
speeds;
(2) visual guidance is available for navigation
accuracy;
(3) weather minima and wind limitations are
specified for each runway; and
(4) the flight crew has obtained adequate
knowledge of the route to be flown and of the
procedures to be used in accordance with
ORO.OPS.FC.
CAT.POL.A.245 Approval of steep (a) Steep approach operations using glideslope YES
approach operations angles of 4,5° or more and with screen heights
of less than 60 ft, but not less than 35 ft, require
prior approval by the competent authority.
(b) To obtain the approval, the operator shall ---
provide evidence that the following conditions
are met:
(1) the AFM states the maximum approved
glideslope angle, any other limitations, normal,
abnormal or emergency procedures for the
steep approach as well as amendments to the
field length data when using steep approach
criteria;
(2) for each aerodrome at which steep approach ---
operations are to be conducted:
(i) a suitable glide path reference system
comprising at least a visual glide path
indicating system shall be available;
(ii) weather minima shall be specified; and
(iii) the following items shall be taken into ---
consideration:
(A) the obstacle situation;
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(B) the type of glide path reference and runway
guidance;
(C) the minimum visual reference to be
required at decision height (DH) and MDA;
(D) available airborne equipment;
(E) pilot qualification and special aerodrome
familiarisation;
(F) AFM limitations and procedures; and
(G) missed approach criteria.
CAT.POL.A.250 Approval of short (a) Short landing operations require prior YES
landing operations approval by the competent authority.
(b) To obtain the approval, the operator shall ---
provide evidence that the following conditions
are met:
(1) the distance used for the calculation of the
permitted landing mass may consist of the
usable length of the declared safe area plus the
declared LDA;
(2) the State of the aerodrome has determined a
public interest and operational necessity for the
operation, either due to the remoteness of the
aerodrome or to physical limitations relating to
extending the runway;
(3) the vertical distance between the path of the
pilot’s eye and the path of the lowest part of the
wheels, with the aeroplane established on the
normal glide path, does not exceed 3 m;
(4) RVR/VIS minimum shall not be less than 1
500 m and wind limitations are specified in the
operations manual;
(5) minimum pilot experience, training and
special aerodrome familiarisation requirements
are specified and met;
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(6) the crossing height over the beginning of
the usable length of the declared safe area is 50
ft;
(7) the use of the declared safe area is approved
by the State of the aerodrome;
(8) the usable length of the declared safe area
does not exceed 90 m;
(9) the width of the declared safe area is not
less than twice the runway width or twice the
wing span, whichever is greater, centred on the
extended runway centre line;
(10) the declared safe area is clear of
obstructions or depressions that would
endanger an aeroplane undershooting the
runway and no mobile object is permitted on
the declared safe area while the runway is being
used for short landing operations;
(11) the slope of the declared safe area does not
exceed 5 % upward nor 2 % downward in the
direction of landing; and
(12) additional conditions, if specified by the
competent authority, taking into account
aeroplane type characteristics, orographic
characteristics in the approach area, available
approach aids and missed approach/balked
landing considerations.
CHAPTER3 ---
PerformanceclassB ---
CAT.POL.A.300 General (a) Unless approved by the competent authority ---
in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA),
Subpart L — SINGLE- ENGINED TURBINE
AEROPLANE OPERATIONS AT NIGHT OR
IN IMC (SET-IMC), the operator shall not
operate a single-engined aeroplane:
(1) at night; or
(2) in IMC except under special VFR.
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(b) The operator shall treat two-engined
aeroplanes that do not meet the climb
requirements of CAT.POL.A.340 as single-
engined aeroplanes.
CAT.POL.A.305 Take-off (a) The take-off mass shall not exceed the
maximum take-off mass specified in the AFM
for the pressure altitude and the ambient
temperature at the aerodrome of departure.
(b) The unfactored take-off distance, specified ---
in the AFM, shall not exceed:
(1) when multiplied by a factor of 1,25, the
take-off run available (TORA); or
(2) when stop way and/or clearway is available, ---
the following:
(i) the TORA;
(ii) when multiplied by a factor of 1,15, the
take-off distance available (TODA); or
(iii) when multiplied by a factor of 1,3, the
ASDA.
(c) When showing compliance with (b), the ---
following shall be taken into account:
(1) the mass of the aeroplane at the
commencement of the take-off run;
(2) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome;
(3) the ambient temperature at the aerodrome;
(4) the runway surface condition and the type
of runway surface;
(5) the runway slope in the direction of take-
off; and
(6) not more than 50 % of the reported
headwind component or not less than 150 % of
the reported tailwind component.
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.305 Take-off ---
RUNWAY SURFACE CONDITION ---
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(a) Unless otherwise specified in the AFM or
other performance or operating manuals from
the manufacturer, the variables affecting the
take-off performance and the associated factors
that should be applied to the AFM data are
shown in Table 1 below. They should be
applied in addition to the operational factors as
prescribed in CAT.POL.A.305.
(*See Table 1: Runway surface condition -
Variables)
(b) The soil should be considered firm when
there are wheel impressions but no rutting.
(c) When taking off on grass with a single-
engined aeroplane, care should be taken to
assess the rate of acceleration and consequent
distance increase.
(d) When making a rejected take-off on very
short grass that is wet and with a firm subsoil,
the surface may be slippery, in which case the
distances may increase significantly.
AMC2 CAT.POL.A.305 Take-off ---
RUNWAY SLOPE ---
Unless otherwise specified in the AFM, or
other performance or operating manuals from
the manufacturer, the take-off distance should
be increased by 5 % for each 1 % of upslope
except that correction factors for runways with
slopes in excess of 2 % should only be applied
when the operator has demonstrated to the
competent authority that the necessary data in
the AFM or the operations manual contain the
appropriated procedures and the crew is trained
to take-off in runway with slopes in excess of 2
%.
GM1 CAT.POL.A.305 Take-off
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RUNWAY SURFACE CONDITION (a) Due to the inherent risks, operations from
contaminated runways are inadvisable, and
should be avoided whenever possible.
Therefore, it is advisable to delay the take-off
until the runway is cleared.
(b) Where this is impracticable, the commander
should also consider the excess runway length
available including the criticality of the overrun
area.
CAT.POL.A.310 Take-off obstacle (a) The take-off flight path of aeroplanes with ---
clearance — multi-engined aeroplanes two or more engines shall be determined in
such a way that the aeroplane clears all
obstacles by a vertical distance of at least 50 ft,
or by a horizontal distance of at least 90 m plus
0,125 × D, where D is the horizontal distance
travelled by the aeroplane from the end of the
TODA or the end of the take-off distance if a
turn is scheduled before the end of the TODA,
except as provided in (b) and (c). For
aeroplanes with a wingspan of less than 60 m, a
horizontal obstacle clearance of half the
aeroplane wingspan plus 60 m plus 0,125 × D
may be used. It shall be assumed that:
(1) the take-off flight path begins at a height of
50 ft above the surface at the end of the take-off
distance required by CAT.POL.A.305(b) and
ends at a height of 1 500 ft above the surface;
(2) the aeroplane is not banked before the
aeroplane has reached a height of 50 ft above
the surface, and thereafter the angle of bank
does not exceed 15°;
(3) failure of the critical engine occurs at the
point on the all engine take-off flight path
where visual reference for the purpose of
avoiding obstacles is expected to be lost;
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(4) the gradient of the take-off flight path from
50 ft to the assumed engine failure height is
equal to the average all- engines gradient
during climb and transition to the en-route
configuration, multiplied by a factor of 0,77;
and
(5) the gradient of the take-off flight path from
the height reached in accordance with (a)(4) to
the end of the take-off flight path is equal to the
OEI en-route climb gradient shown in the
AFM.
(b) For cases where the intended flight path ---
does not require track changes of more than
15°, the operator does not need to consider
those obstacles that have a lateral distance
greater than:
(1) 300 m, if the flight is conducted under
conditions allowing visual course guidance
navigation, or if navigational aids are available
enabling the pilot to maintain the intended
flight path with the same accuracy; or
(2) 600 m, for flights under all other conditions.
(c) For cases where the intended flight path ---
requires track changes of more than 15°, the
operator does not need to consider those
obstacles that have a lateral distance greater
than:
(1) 600 m, for flights under conditions allowing
visual course guidance navigation; or
(2) 900 m, for flights under all other conditions.
(d) When showing compliance with (a) to (c), ---
the following shall be taken into account:
(1) the mass of the aeroplane at the
commencement of the take-off run;
(2) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome;
(3) the ambient temperature at the aerodrome;
and
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(4) not more than 50 % of the reported
headwind component or not less than 150 % of
the reported tailwind component.
(e) The requirements in (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5),
(b)(2) and (c)(2) shall not be applicable to VFR
operations by day.
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.310 Take-off obstacle ---
clearance – multi-engined aeroplanes
TAKE-OFF FLIGHT PATH – VISUAL ---
COURSE GUIDANCE NAVIGATION
(a) In order to allow visual course guidance
navigation, the weather conditions prevailing at
the time of operation, including ceiling and
visibility, should be such that the obstacle
and/or ground reference points can be seen and
identified. For VFR operations by night, the
visual course guidance should be considered
available when the flight visibility is 1 500 m
or more.
(b) The operations manual should specify, for ---
the aerodrome(s) concerned, the minimum
weather conditions that enable the flight crew
to continuously determine and maintain the
correct flight path with respect to ground
reference points, so as to provide a safe
clearance with respect to obstructions and
terrain as follows:
(1) the procedure should be well defined with
respect to ground reference points so that the
track to be flown can be analysed for obstacle
clearance requirements;
(2) the procedure should be within the
capabilities of the aeroplane with respect to
forward speed, bank angle and wind effects;
(3) a written and/or pictorial description of the
procedure should be provided for crew use; and
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(4) the limiting environmental conditions
should be specified (e.g. wind, cloud, visibility,
day/night, ambient lighting, obstruction
lighting).
AMC2 CAT.POL.A.310 Take-off obstacle ---
clearance – multi-engined aeroplanes
TAKE-OFF FLIGHT PATH ---
CONSTRUCTION
(a) For demonstrating that the aeroplane clears
all obstacles vertically, a flight path should be
constructed consisting of an all-engines
segment to the assumed engine failure height,
followed by an engine-out segment. Where the
AFM does not contain the appropriate data, the
approximation given in (b) may be used for the
all-engines segment for an assumed engine
failure height of 200 ft, 300 ft, or higher.
(b) Flight path construction ---
(1) All-engines segment (50 ft to 300 ft) ---
The average all-engines gradient for the all-
engines flight path segment starting at an
altitude of 50 ft at the end of the take-off
distance ending at or passing through the 300 ft
point is given by the following formula:
(*See formula on )
(2) All-engines segment (50 ft to 200 ft) ---
This may be used as an alternative to (b)(1)
where weather minima permit. The average all-
engines gradient for the all-engines flight path
segment starting at an altitude of 50 ft at the
end of the take-off distance ending at or passing
through the 200 ft point is given by the
following formula:
(*See formula on)
(3) All-engines segment (above 300 ft) ---
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The all-engines flight path segment continuing
from an altitude of 300 ft is given by the AFM
en-route gross climb gradient, multiplied by a
factor of 0.77.
(4) The OEI flight path ---
The OEI flight path is given by the OEI
gradient chart contained in the AFM.
GM1 CAT.POL.A.310 Take-off obstacle
clearance — multi-engined aeroplanes
OBSTACLE CLEARANCE IN LIMITED (a) Unlike the Certification Specifications
VISIBILITY applicable for performance class A aeroplanes,
those for performance class B aeroplanes do
not necessarily provide for engine failure in all
phases of flight. It is accepted that performance
accountability for engine failure need not be
considered until a height of 300 ft is reached.
(b) The weather minima given up to and
including 300 ft imply that if a take-off is
undertaken with minima below 300 ft, an OEI
flight path should be plotted starting on the all-
engines take-off flight path at the assumed
engine failure height. This path should meet the
vertical and lateral obstacle clearance specified
in CAT.POL.A.310. Should engine failure
occur below this height, the associated
visibility is taken as being the minimum that
would enable the pilot to make, if necessary, a
forced landing broadly in the direction of the
take-off. At or below 300 ft, a circle and land
procedure is extremely inadvisable. The
weather minima provisions specify that, if the
assumed engine failure height is more than 300
ft, the visibility should be at least 1 500 m and,
to allow for manoeuvring, the same minimum
visibility should apply whenever the obstacle
clearance criteria for a continued take-off
cannot be met.
GM2 CAT.POL.A.310 Take-off obstacle
clearance — multi-engined aeroplanes
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TAKE-OFF FLIGHT PATH (a) This GM provides examples to illustrate the
CONSTRUCTION method of take-off flight path construction
given in AMC2 CAT.POL.A.310. The
examples are based on an aeroplane for which
the AFM shows, at a given mass, altitude,
temperature and wind component the following
performance data:
— factored take-off distance – 1 000 m;
— take-off speed, V2 – 90 kt; - en-route climb
speed, VERC – 120 kt; - en-route all-engines
climb gradient, YERC – 0.2; - en-route OEI
climb gradient, YERC-1 – 0.032.
(1) Assumed engine failure height 300 ft
The average all-engines gradient from 50 ft to
300 ft may be read from Figure 1 or calculated
with the following formula: (See the formula))
See the figure 1 ” Assumed engine failure
height 300 ft”
(2) Assumed engine failure height 200 ft
The average all-engines gradient from 50 ft to
200 ft may be read from Figure 2 or calculated
with the following formula: (See the formula)
See the Figure 2 ” Assumed engine failure
height 200 ft”
(3) Assumed engine failure height less than 200
ft Construction of a take-off flight path is only
possible if the AFM contains the required flight
path data.
(4) Assumed engine failure height more than
300 ft The construction of a take-off flight path
for an assumed engine failure height of 400 ft is
illustrated below. (See the Figure 3 ” Assumed
engine failure height less than 200 ft”
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CAT.POL.A.315 En-route — multi- (a) The aeroplane, in the meteorological
engined aeroplanes conditions expected for the flight and in the
event of the failure of one engine, with the
- GM1 CAT.POL.A.315 remaining engines operating within the
maximum continuous power conditions
specified, shall be capable of continuing flight
at or above the relevant minimum altitudes for
safe flight stated in the operations manual to a
point of 1 000 ft above an aerodrome at which
the performance requirements can be met.
(b) It shall be assumed that, at the point of ---
engine failure:
(1) the aeroplane is not flying at an altitude
exceeding that at which the rate of climb equals
300 ft per minute with all engines operating
within the maximum continuous power
conditions specified; and
(2) the en-route gradient with OEI shall be the
gross gradient of descent or climb, as
appropriate, respectively increased by a
gradient of 0,5 %, or decreased by a gradient of
0,5 %.
GM1 CAT.POL.A.315 En-route — multi-
engined aeroplanes
CRUISING ALTITUDE (a) The altitude at which the rate of climb
equals 300 ft per minute is not a restriction on
the maximum cruising altitude at which the
aeroplane can fly in practice, it is merely the
maximum altitude from which the driftdown
procedure can be planned to start.
(b) Aeroplanes may be planned to clear en-
route obstacles assuming a driftdown
procedure, having first increased the scheduled
en-route OEI descent data by 0.5 % gradient.
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CAT.POL.A.320 En-route — single- (a) In the meteorological conditions expected
engined aeroplanes for the flight, and in the event of engine failure,
the aeroplane shall be capable of reaching a
- GM1 CAT.POL.A.320 place at which a safe forced landing can be
made, unless the operator is approved by the
competent authority in accordance with Annex
V (Part-SPA), Subpart L — SINGLE-
ENGINED TURBINE AEROPLANE
OPERATIONS AT NIGHT OR IN IMC (SET-
IMC) and makes use of a risk period.
(b) For the purposes of point (a), it shall be ---
assumed that, at the point of engine failure:
(1) the aeroplane is not flying at an altitude
exceeding that at which the rate of climb equals
300 ft per minute, with the engine operating
within the maximum continuous power
conditions specified; and
(2) the en-route gradient is the gross gradient of
descent increased by a gradient of 0,5 %.
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.320 En-route - single- ---
engined aeroplanes
ENGINE FAILURE ---
CAT.POL.A.320 requires the operator not
approved by the competent authority in
accordance with Subpart L (SET-IMC) of
Annex V (Part-SPA) to Regulation (EU) No
965/2012, and not making use of a risk period,
to ensure that in the event of an engine failure,
the aeroplane should be capable of reaching a
point from which a safe forced landing can be
made. Unless otherwise specified by the
competent authority, this point should be 1 000
ft above the intended landing area.
GM1 CAT.POL.A.320 En-route — single-
engined aeroplanes
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ENGINE FAILURE Considerations for the operator not approved by
the competent authority in accordance with
Subpart L (SET-IMC) of Annex V (Part-SPA)
to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, and not
making use of a risk period:
(a) In the event of an engine failure, single-
engined aeroplanes have to rely on gliding to a
point suitable for a safe forced landing. Such a
procedure is clearly incompatible with flight
above a cloud layer that extends below the
relevant minimum safe altitude.
(b) The operator should first increase the
scheduled engine-inoperative gliding
performance data by 0.5 % gradient when
verifying the en-route clearance of obstacles
and the ability to reach a suitable place for a
forced landing.
(c) The altitude at which the rate of climb
equals 300 ft per minute is not a restriction on
the maximum cruising altitude at which the
aeroplane can fly in practice, it is merely the
maximum altitude from which the engine-
inoperative procedure can be planned to start.
GM2 CAT.POL.A.320 En-route — single-
engined aeroplanes
RISK PERIOD In the context of commercial air transport
operations with single-engined turbine
aeroplanes in instrument meteorological
conditions or at night (CAT SET-IMC), a risk
period is a period of flight during which no
landing site has been selected by the operator.
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CAT.POL.A.325 Landing — destination The landing mass of the aeroplane determined
and alternate aerodromes in accordance with CAT.POL.A.105(a) shall
not exceed the maximum landing mass
specified for the altitude and the ambient
temperature expected at the estimated time of
landing at the destination aerodrome and
alternate aerodrome.
AMC1 CAT.POL.A.325 Landing – ---
destination and alternate aerodromes
ALTITUDE MEASURING ---
The operator should use either pressure altitude
or geometric altitude for its operation and this
should be reflected in the operations manual.
CAT.POL.A.330 Landing — dry runways (a) The landing mass of the aeroplane ---
determined in accordance with
CAT.POL.A.105(a) for the estimated time of
landing at the destination aerodrome and at any
alternate aerodrome shall allow a full stop
landing from 50 ft above the threshold within
70 % of the LDA taking into account:
(1) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(2) not more than 50 % of the headwind
component or not less than 150 % of the
tailwind component;
(3) the runway surface condition and the type
of runway surface; and